Here
are 726 sample multiple choice questions. The answers are scrambled... the
correct answer corresponds to different letters in different questions. Many of
the questions on the quizzes and final will be drawn from this set, but also
included here are many things that I will not cover in the course and therefore
will not ask you about. NOTE: Latex-style special symbols are used. ^ indicates
that the following character (or set of characters enclosed by {}) is a supersript.
1. The
term Zodiac refers to
A) the
light from Saturn's rings.
B) a
method for making astrological predictions.
C) a
group of constellations lying near the ecliptic.
D) the
head of the
E) all
constellations named after animals.
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2. You have just won 100 million dollars on that
hit TV survival show ``Astronomy Midterm No. 1''. How much money is this?
A)
\$10$^8$
B)
\$100,000
C)
\$10$^6$
D)
\$10$^{100}$
E)
Enough for a 20-minute phone call.
-----------
3. In current scientific opinion,
have
been
A) the
site of ancient fertility rites.
B) an
ancient burial ground.
C) an
ancient flying saucer base.
D) an
astronomical observatory.
E) the
site of early Christian rituals.
-----------
4. You have just won $10^4$ dollars on that hit
TV survival show ``Astronomy Midterm No. 1''. How much money is this in real
money?
A)
\$40,000
B)
\$100,000
C)
\$10,000
D) \$40
E)
Enough for a 20-minute phone call.
-----------
5. If the Moon is very close to a certain star
in the sky, how
long
will it be before the Moon is again close to the same
star?
A) 24
hours
B) one
year
C) one
week
D) one
month
E) 23
hours 56 minutes
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6. Which of the following is NOT an example of
the conservation of angular momentum?
A) Kepler's 2nd law (planets sweep out equal areas in their
orbits in equal amounts of time).
B) A
bicycle does not fall over when it is moving.
C) A
rocket is propelled forward by hot gas shooting out the back.
D) All
of the other answers are examples of the conservation of angular momentum.
E) A
student spinning on a stool pulls in his arms and speeds up.
-----------
7. In ancient times, how did people primarily
tell the
difference
between planets and stars?
A) The
planets moved relative to the stars.
B) None
of the other answers is correct.
C) The
planets looked bigger.
D) The
planets showed phases.
E) The
planets didn't twinkle.
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8. A
planet moves slowest in its orbit
A) the
closer it is to its satellites.
B) when
it is farthest from the Sun.
C) when
it is closest to the Sun.
D) when
it is in opposition.
E) the
greater its mass.
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9. Most Greek astronomers believed that the
Earth is immobile
because
they did not observe
A)
eclipses of the Sun.
B)
retrograde motion of the planets.
C) All
of the other answers are correct.
D)
stellar motion.
E)
parallaxes for the stars.
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10. A planet moves fastest in its orbit
A) when
it is in opposition.
B) when
it is closest to the Sun.
C) the
greater its mass.
D) when
it is farthest from the Sun.
E) the
closer it is to its satellites.
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11. In the geocentric concept if the universe,
which direction
does
the celestial sphere appear to rotate about the
stationary
Earth? In the heliocentric universe, which
direction
does the earth rotate?
A)
geocentric: east to west; heliocentric: west to east
B)
geocentric: west to east; heliocentric: west to east
C)
geocentric: west to east; heliocentric: east to west
D)
geocentric: east to west; heliocentric: east to west
-----------
12. The rings of Saturn were discovered by
A) Kepler.
B)
Ptolemy.
C)
Copernicus.
D)
Galileo.
-----------
13. Aristotle concluded that the Earth is
spherical from the
curvature
of its shadow on the
A) Sun
during a solar eclipse.
B)
Earth during a lunar eclipse.
C)
Earth during a solar eclipse.
D) Moon
during a lunar eclipse.
E) Moon
during a solar eclipse.
-----------
14. Sunspots were discovered by
A)
B) Kepler.
C) Galileo.
D) Copernicus.
-----------
15. Aristarchus argues
A) for
a flat Earth.
B) for
a geocentric universe.
C) that
planets move on epicycles.
D) that
the Sun is twice as large as the Moon.
E) for
a heliocentric universe.
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16. The higher the frequency of light
A) the
longer (larger) its wavelength.
B) the
shorter (smaller) its wavelength.
C) the
greater its velocity in a vacuum.
D) the
redder it will be.
-----------
17. Aristarchus estimated the relative distances
to the Sun and
Moon
by observing the
A)
angle between the half Moon and the Sun in the sky.
B)
shape of the Earth's shadow on the Moon.
C)
shape of the crescent Moon.
D)
apparent size of the Sun and Moon.
E) time
it took a letter to reach the Sun and Moon.
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18. The smaller the wavelength of light
A) the
larger its frequency.
B) the
smaller its frequency.
C) the
greater its velocity in a vacuum.
D) the
redder it will be.
-----------
19. The difference in the lengths of shadows
simultaneously cast
by
identical sticks placed vertically in the ground at two
different
points on a meridian indicates that
A) the
Moon is spherical.
B) the
Sun is spherical.
C) the
Earth is spherical.
D) the
Earth is not flat.
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20. The spectral lines of a star are observed to
be shifted toward larger wavelengths. This shows that
A) the
star is very hot.
B) the
star is approaching us.
C) the
star is rather cool.
D) the
star is sad.
E) the
star is receding from us.
-----------
21. In order to account for the retrograde motion
of the
planets,
Ptolemy introduced the
A)
epicycle.
B) equant.
C)
deferent.
D)
center of eccentric.
E)
ecliptic.
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22. The spectral lines of a star are observed to
be shifted toward smaller wavelengths. This shows that
A) the
star is rather cool.
B) the
star is very hot.
C) the
star is receding from us.
D) the
star is approaching us.
E)
light is moving more slowly than usual.
-----------
23. In the Copernican theory, day and night are
accounted for by
A) the
rotation of the Earth.
B) the
rotation of the celestial sphere.
C) the
revolution of the Sun about the Earth.
D) the
revolution of the Earth about the Sun.
E) the
rotation of the Sun.
-----------
24. A continuous spectrum is formed by
A) all
of the other answers are correct.
B) a
glowing steel ingot in a blast furnace.
C) a
hot frying pan.
D) the
photosphere of the Sun.
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25. Ptolemy and Copernicus both
A)
believed the Sun went around the Earth.
B)
believed the Earth went around the Sun.
C)
believed Mars would look faintest when at opposition.
D) used
uniform circular motion to explain planetary motion.
E) made
very accurate predictions of planetary motion.
-----------
26. A continuous spectrum is formed by
A) the
expanding shell of gas in a Planetary Nebula.
B) the
fluorescent lights in the classroom.
C) all
of the other answers are correct.
D) the
photosphere of the Sun.
E) gas
that emits do to the de-excitation of electrons.
-----------
27. The Copernican model of the solar system
allowed, for the
first
time, the measurement of
A) the
relative distances of the planets.
B) the
mass of the Earth.
C) the
relative masses of the planets.
D) the
distance of the Sun.
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28. The spectrum of a cloud of cool gas seen
against a bright background black body would show
A) a
Doppler shift.
B) a
continuous spectrum.
C)
either bright or dark lines, depending on distance.
D) dark
(absorption) lines.
E)
bright (emission) lines.
-----------
29. By using a Heliocentric model for the solar
system,
Copernicus
was able to find for the first time the
A) synodic periods of the planets.
B)
distance to the Moon.
C)
cause of tides in the Earth's oceans.
D)
sidereal periods of the planets.
E)
diameters of the planets.
-----------
30. The spectrum of a cloud of hot gas seen
against a dark background would show
A) dark
(absorption) lines.
B)
bright (emission) lines.
C)
either bright or dark lines, depending on distance.
D) a
Doppler shift.
E) a
continuous spectrum.
-----------
31. Which of the following planets never reaches
opposition (as
seen
from the Earth)?
A)
Venus
B)
Jupiter
C)
Saturn
D) Mars
-----------
32. As a glowing black body gets cooler, what
happens to its color and what happens to the brightness of the light it emits?
A)
color gets more blue; doesn't change brightness.
B)
color gets more blue; emits less light.
C)
color gets more blue; emits more light.
D)
color gets more red; emits more light.
E)
color gets more red; emits less light.
-----------
33. If Venus is seen in the west after the Sun
sets, next
morning
it will
A)
appear to have a considerably different phase.
B) rise
before the Sun.
C)
Venus is never in the west after sunset.
D) rise
after the Sun rises.
E) go
behind the Sun.
-----------
34. As a glowing black body gets hotter, what
happens to its color and what happens to the brightness of the light it emits?
A)
color gets more blue; emits more light.
B)
color gets more blue; doesn't change brightness.
C)
color gets more red; emits more light.
D)
color gets more red; emits less light.
E)
color gets more blue; emits less light.
-----------
35. Venus is closest to Earth at
A) quadrature.
B)
greatest elongation.
C)
opposition.
D)
superior conjunction.
E) inferior conjunction.
-----------
36. You are observing a star about 95 trillion km
(10 lightyears) away. How old is the most recent
information you can get about this star?
A) 100
years
B)
300,000 seconds
C) This
can't be determined without having more information.
D) 95
trillion seconds
E) 10
years
-----------
37. At the time Mars is observed to be at western
quadrature, an
observer
on Mars would see the Earth at
A)
greatest western elongation.
B)
inferior conjunction.
C)
eastern quadrature.
D)
greatest eastern elongation.
E)
opposition.
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38. You are observing a star about 950 trillion
km (100 lightyears) away. How old is the most recent
information you can get about this star?
A) 100
years
B)
300,000 seconds
C) 10
years
D) This
can't be determined without having more information.
E) 950
trillion seconds
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39. The time between oppositions of Mars is known
as Mars'
A)
rotation period.
B)
sidereal period.
C)
eccentric period.
D)
period of revolution.
E) synodic period.
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40. Which of the following is the smallest?
A) the
Earth
B) the
Universe
C) a
galaxy
D) the
Sun
-----------
41. The astronomer Tycho
Brahe was known for his,
A) use
of the telescope.
B)
accurate observations of planet positions.
C)
theory of epicycles.
D)
observation of the Moon's features.
E)
measurement of the Earth's rotation.
-----------
42. Which of the following is the largest?
A) a
galaxy
B) the
Universe
C) the
Sun
D) the
Earth
-----------
43. The discovery that planets move in elliptical
orbits with
the
Sun at the focus was made by
A) Halley.
B) Giordano Bruno.
C) Tycho Brahe.
D) Kepler.
E)
Galileo.
-----------
44. Which of the following is NOT one of the four
fundamental forces?
A)
Angular Momentum
B)
Electromagnetism
C)
Gravity
D)
Strong nuclear force
E) Weak
nuclear force.
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45. A planet moves faster in its orbit
A) when
it is farthest from the Sun.
B) the
greater its mass.
C) when
it is in opposition.
D) the
farther it is from it's satellites.
E) when
it is nearer the Sun.
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46. Which of the following is NOT one of the four
fundamental forces?
A)
Gravity
B)
Strong nuclear force
C)
Kinetic energy
D)
Electromagnetism
E) Weak
nuclear force.
-----------
47. If there had been no oceans on the Earth, the
Earth's
present
atmosphere would be largely composed of
A)
water
B)
nitrogen
C)
oxygen
D)
carbon dioxide
E)
carbon monoxide
-----------
48. What does the term ``parallax'' refer to?
A) The
apparent jump of the position of a foregrond object
relative to distant objects when we look from two different points.
B) The
reversal of the apparent motion of the planets with respect to the background
stars.
C) Two laxes.
D) The
shape of the orbit of the planets.
E) The
apparent slowing of time when it is measured from a rapidly moving frame of
reference.
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49. The oldest rocks thus far found on the
Earth's surface have
ages
of about
A) 3.5 million
years
B) 3.5
billion years
C) 35
years
D) 3.5
thousand years
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50. When we view a foreground object from two
different points and see it appear to jump relative to the distant background,
the effect is called
A)
parallax
B) retrograde
motion
C)
conservation of angular momentum
D)
hyperventilation
E)
precession
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51. Galileo's studies of moving objects led to
the idea that a
moving
object
A) will
go faster the heavier it is.
B) will
seek its natural state of rest.
C) is
subject to the Universal Law of Gravity.
D)
requires a force to keep it moving.
E)
comes to rest only if a force stops it.
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52. According to Kepler's
first law, the planets each move in an elliptical orbit with the sun
A) at
the geometrical center.
B) at
one focus.
C) at
both foci.
D) on
the opposite side of the same ellipse.
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53. The four large moons around Jupiter were
discovered by
A) Copernicus.
B) Kepler.
C) Ptolemy.
D) Tycho Brahe.
E) Galileo.
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54. Kepler's first law
says that the planets move in elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus of
the ellipse. What is at the other focus?
A)
Empty space.
B) The
Earth
C) The
Moon.
D) Your
ISP205 instructor.
E) The
planet in question.
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55. Galileo's observation that Venus shows all of
the phases was
important
because it discredited
A)
Newton's law of gravitation.
B) the
Copernican theory.
C) Kepler's Harmonic Law.
D) the
Ptolemaic theory.
-----------
56. If a distant light source that emits isotropically (i.e. equally in all directions) is moved to
1/2 of its previous distance, how much does its flux change by? (how many times
brighter does it appear to be?)
A) 1/2
B) 1
C) 1/4
D) 4
E) 2
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57. The rate of change of the velocity of a body
is called the
body's
A)
momentum
B)
applied force.
C)
mass.
D)
acceleration.
E)
kinetic energy.
-----------
58. If a distant light source that emits isotropically (i.e. equally in all directions) is moved to
twice its previous distance, its new flux is how many times its previous flux?
A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 2
D) 4
E) 1/4
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59. "For every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction"
is a
statement of
A) Kepler's first law of planetary motion.
B)
Newton's third law of motion.
C) the
correspondence principle.
D) the
theory of relativity.
E)
Galileo's theory of motion.
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60. The reason that bicycles don't fall over once
you get moving along is
A)
training wheels.
B) the
direction of the axis of spin of their wheels is trying to stay constant.
C)
their gravitational potential energy would increase if they fell over.
D)
quantum mechanics shows that they can only be in the upright state.
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61. Newton's law of gravitation states that the
attractive force
between
any two masses in space is in proportion to the
product
of the (1)______ and in inverse proportion to the
A) (1)
masses; (2) distance between them
B) (1)
distances between them; (2) masses
C) (1)
inverse masses; (2) distance between them
D) (1)
reciprocal distances between them; (2) masses
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62. The reason that bicycles don't fall over once
you get moving along is
A)
quantum mechanics shows that they can only be in the upright state.
B)
training wheels.
C)
conservation of angular momentum.
D)
their gravitational potential energy would increase if they fell over.
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63. The Earth has an equatorial bulge because of
A) the
Earth's precession.
B) the
Earth's revolution around the Sun.
C) the
gravitational pull of the Sun.
D) the
Earth's rotation.
E) the
gravitational pull of the Moon.
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64. When you shoot a cannonball upwards from the
surface of the Earth with less than the ``escape velocity'', what will happen?
A) It
will slow down, but will not fall back to Earth.
B) It
will keep moving at a constant speed and not fall back to Earth.
C) It
will slow down and eventually fall back to Earth.
D) It
will speed up as it moves away from Earth.
-----------
65. An important cause of the slowing down of the
Earth's
rotation
is the
A)
tides caused by the gravity of the Moon.
B) pull
of the Moon on the Earth's magnetic field.
C) pull
of the Earth's equitorial bulge on the Moon.
D)
gravitational increase in the size of the Earth's orbit.
E) pull
of the Moon on the Earth's equatorial bulge.
-----------
66. When you shoot a cannonball upwards from the
surface of the Earth with more than the ``escape velocity'', what will happen?
A) It
will speed up as it moves away from Earth.
B) It
will slow down, but will not fall back to Earth.
C) It
will keep moving at a constant speed and not fall back to Earth.
D) It
will slow down and eventually fall back to Earth.
-----------
67. The first physical proof of the rotation of
the Earth on its
axis
was demonstrated
A) by
Bradley with the discovery of stellar aberration.
B) by
Foucault in 1851 using the pendulum experiment.
C) by
observing the day-to-day motion of the Sun.
D) by
noting the differences between solar and sidereal time.
E) by
Galileo, when he observed the motions of Jupiter's
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68. Pluto has a very elliptical orbit about the
Sun, so sometimes it is closer to the Sun and sometimes it is farther away.
Which stays constant?
A) Two
of the other answers are correct.
B) Its
gravitational potential energy.
C) Its
kinetic energy.
D) Its
total energy.
E) None
of the other answers are correct.
-----------
69. Which of the following is a proof of the
Earth's revolution
around
the Sun?
A)
rising and setting of the Sun.
B) the
Foucault pendulum experiment.
C)
parallax of stars.
D)
seasons.
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70. I throw a baseball up the air and watch its
motion. Which stays constant?
A) Its
total energy.
B) Two
of the other answers are correct.
C) Its
kinetic energy.
D) Its
gravitational potential energy.
E) None
of the other answers are correct.
-----------
71. Because of the precession of the equinoxes
A)
Polaris will not always be our pole star.
B) All
of these answers are correct.
C)
D) the
declinations of the stars change slowly with time.
E) the
Vernal Equinox moves with respect to the stars.
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72. Red light has a wavelength which is twice
that of blue light. Therefore, photons of red light each carry \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
as much energy as is carried by photons of blue light.
A)
twice
B) half
C) one
fourth
D) four
times
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73. One side of the Moon always faces the Earth
because the
A)
rotation rate about the Sun equals the revolution rate.
B) Moon
does not spin on its axis.
C)
revolution rate about the Earth equals the rotation rate.
D)
Earth always has the same side facing the Moon.
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74. Blue light has a wavelength which is half
that of red light. Therefore, photons of blue light each carry \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
as much energy as is carried by photons of red light.
A) half
B) four
times
C) one
fourth
D)
twice
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75. Total solar eclipses, when they occur, are
visible from
A) a
narrow path on the Earth.
B) any
place on the Earth.
C) any
place on the Earth where the Sun is visible.
D) any
place on Earth where the Sun and Moon are visible.
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76. The correct arrangement of light at different
wavelengths, in order from smallest to largest FREQUENCY, is:
A)
infrared - ultraviolet - visible
B)
gamma rays - ultraviolet - visible -
radio
C) They
all have the same frequency. It is the energy per photon that differs.
D)
radio - infrared - visible - xrays
-----------
77. If the ecliptic and the orbit of the Moon
were in the same
plane
A) we
would see the entire surface of the Moon.
B) the
Earth would cease to precess.
C)
there would be a lunar eclipse each month.
D) the
Moon would collide with the Sun.
E) as
seen from Earth, the Moon would no longer show phases.
-----------
78. The correct arrangement of light at different
wavelengths, in order from smallest to largest WAVELENGTH, is:
A)
radio - infrared - visible - xrays
B)
infrared - ultraviolet - visible
C) They
all have the same wavelength. It is the energy per photon that differs.
D)
gamma rays - ultraviolet - visible -
radio
-----------
79. Name the planet which is largest in diameter.
A)
Jupiter
B)
Uranus
C)
Mercury
D)
Venus
-----------
80. All of the naturally occuring
chemical elements heavier than hydrogen, helium and lithium were created in
nuclear reactions having to do with the evolution of stars. Where did hydrogen
come from?
A) It
came from the radioactive decay of Uranium.
B)
Nobody knows how it got there.
C) It
was synthesized during the Big Bang (the initial phases of the expansion of the
universe).
D) It
was synthesized in supernova explosions.
-----------
81. Mars and Mercury have similar velocities of
escape, yet Mars
The
difference
is probably due to
A)
Mercury's rotation rate being faster than that of Mars.
B) Mars
having a slower velocity in its orbit than Mercury.
C)
initial differences in the compositions of the planets.
D) Mercury
having a higher surface temperature than Mars.
E) None
of the other answers is correct.
-----------
82. Most of the hydrogen and helium and lithium
that we see in the universe were formed during the initial "Big Bang"
(the initial phases of the expansion of the universe). Where did the rest of
the naturally occuring chemical elements (carbon,
nitrogen, iron, etc.) come from?
A) They
existed before the Big Bang.
B) They
were created in laboratory experiments.
C) They
are a byproduct of the process used to make Hostess Twinkies.
D) They
were also formed during the Big Bang.
E) They
were produced by nuclear reactions in stars.
-----------
83. Which planets have mainly carbon dioxide (CO
) for an
atmoshphere?
A)
Jupiter and Saturn
B) Venus,
Mars, and Saturn
C)
Venus, Earth, and Mars
D) Mars
and Jupiter
E)
Venus and Mars
-----------
84. Which of the following statements about
photons is FALSE?
A) All
photons have the same energy.
B)
Photons behave like particles.
C)
Higher energy photons have a higher frequency.
D) In a
vacuum, photons always travel at the speed of light.
E) A
gamma-ray photon is more energetic than a visible light photon.
-----------
85. Where is all the carbon dioxide which should
be present in
the
Earth's atmosphere?
A) gone
into space
B) air
C)
Earth's ice caps
D)
oceans
E)
rocks
-----------
86. Which of the following statements about
photons is FALSE?
A)
Higher energy photons have a higher frequency.
B) In a
vacuum, photons always travel at the speed of light.
C) Low
energy photons move more slowly than high energy photons.
D)
Photons behave like particles.
E) A
gamma-ray photon is more energetic than a visible light photon.
-----------
87. Most lunar craters were apparently caused by
A) We
have no good ideas for their cause.
B)
bursting bubbles of gas from the interior.
C)
spacecraft landings.
D)
meteoric impacts.
E)
volcanoes.
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88. When an electron jumps spontaneously from an
outer orbit to an inner orbit
A) a
photon is absorbed.
B) the
atom changes its electrical charge.
C) the
electron changes its atomic number.
D) a
photon is emitted.
E) the
electron gains energy.
-----------
89. Which part of the Moon is oldest?
A) the rilles.
B) the maria and the highlands are the same age.
C) the
lowlands.
D) the maria.
E) the
highlands.
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90. When an atom emits a photon as part of a
sharp emission line, what has to happen to one of the electrons in orbit around
the atom's nucleus?
A) It
has to jump from a higher energy orbit to a lower energy orbit.
B) It
has to jump from a lower energy orbit to a higher energy orbit.
C) It
changes into a neutron.
D) It
is knocked completely loose from the atom.
E) It
changes into a proton.
-----------
91. Most of the craters on the Moon
A) are
seen most easily at full Moon.
B) were
predicted to exist by Aristotle.
C)
occur in the younger parts of the Moon's surface.
D) were
formed in the Moon's first billion years of
E) were
created by volcanoes.
-----------
92.
A) A
spring-like connection between any two masses.
B) A
universal attraction between masses which gets stronger with distance.
C) A
force which is independent of the masses of the objects involved.
D) An
attraction between like electrical charges.
E) A
universal attraction between any two masses, which falls off as distance$^2$.
-----------
93. The surface of Mercury most closely resembles
A) the
surface of Venus.
B) the
Moon's surface.
C) the
Earth's surface.
D) the
lunar maria.
-----------
94.
A) (1)
inverse masses; (2) distance between them
B) (1)
reciprocal distances between them; (2) masses
C) (1)
masses; (2) distance between them
D) (1)
distances between them; (2) masses
-----------
95. Which of the following has little or no
atmosphere?
A)
Earth
B)
Venus
C)
Jupiter
D) Mars
E)
Mercury
-----------
96. What was the major advance incorporated in
the heliocentric model?
A) it
explained the phases of the moon.
B) it used
more adjustable parameters to describe the same data than did previous models.
C) it
was realized that the Earth is not at the center of the solar system or the
Universe.
D) it
established that the Earth is round.
E)
conservation of angular momentum was properly taken into account.
-----------
97. The atmospheric pressure on the surface of
Venus is about how many times that at the surface of Earth?
A) 0.01
B) 8.9
C) 1000
D) 100
E) 0.9
-----------
98. Who is credited with the idea that the Earth
moves in orbit around the Sun, rather than having the Earth be stationary at
the center of things?
A)
Copernicus
B)
Ptolemy
C)
Newton
D) Kepler
-----------
99. One use of radar astronomy in planetary
research has been to
A) find
water on
B)
discover features on the Moon.
C)
detect mountains on Jupiter.
D)
detect volcanoes on Mars.
E)
detect mountains on Venus.
-----------
100. Magnetism is not a separate force, but
instead is always produced by
A)
movie stars and presidential candidates (in that order).
B) the
strong nuclear force acting on electrons.
C)
electric charges that are in motion.
D)
light moving through a vacuum.
E) the
gravitational pull of the Earth.
-----------
101. Lightning on Venus tends to occur where?
A)
uniformly over the entire planet.
B) in
rolling planes.
C) near
volcanoes.
D) near
the north pole.
E) over
continents.
-----------
102. ``A changing magnetic field creates a
changing electrical field which in turn creates a changing magnetic field.''
This describes
A) how
the gravitational force interacts with the electrostatic force.
B) how
sound waves propagate through the atmosphere.
C)
Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity.
D) the
cause of Retrograde Motion.
E) how
light waves propagate through empty space.
-----------
103. The warmest temperatures on Mars are
A) like
a cold winter day in
B) hot
enough to melt lead.
C) cold
enough to freeze dry ice.
D) like
a warm spring
E) near
the boiling point of water on Earth.
-----------
104.
A) its
mass and velocity.
B) its
velocity and the force on it.
C) its
mass and the force on it.
D) its
velocity and density.
-----------
105. Extraterrestrial dust and sand storms have
been observed on
A)
Mercury
B)
Venus
C) None
of these planets.
D)
Jupiter
E) Mars
-----------
106.
A)
proportional to its density.
B)
inversely proportional to its mass.
C)
directly proportional to its mass.
D)
zero.
E)
independent of its mass.
-----------
107. The air pressure at the Viking landing sites
on Mars was
A) .1
B) 100
C) 10
D) 1000
E) 1
-----------
108. If a planet has an average distance from the
sun (semi-major axis of its orbit) of 4 astronomical units, what is the period
of its orbit? Hint: Use Kepler's 3rd law.
A) 1
year
B) 4
years
C) 64
years
D) 12
years
E) 8
years
-----------
109. Space probes have indicated that Mars has
A)
simple life forms.
B) a
dense atmosphere.
C)
three moons.
D) aurorae.
E) ice
caps of frozen carbon dioxide and water.
-----------
110. If a planet has an average distance from the
sun (semi-major axis of its orbit) of 4 astronomical units, what is the period
of its orbit? Hint: Use Kepler's 3rd law.
A) 8
years
B) 1
year
C) 12
years
D) 64
years
E) 4 years
-----------
111. We believe that at one time water flowed on
Mars because of
observations
of
A)
fossilized stern-wheeler paddle steamers.
B)
polar ice caps.
C)
sedimentary rock near Mars' equator.
D)
features which look like dried-up river beds.
E)
erosion on rocks photographed by Viking.
-----------
112. If the mass of the Sun suddenly became twice
as large, by what amount would the Sun's gravitational $acceleration$ of the
Earth change?
A) 4
times as large.
B)
unchanged.
C) 1/4
as large.
D) half
as large.
E)
twice as large.
-----------
113. The Great Red Spot on Jupiter is
A)
sulfurous clouds over the vertex of a solid obstacle.
B) the
top of a gigantic volcano.
C) a
violent cyclonic storm.
D) an
island floating in a sea of molecular gases.
E)
reddish dust.
-----------
114. If the mass of the Sun suddenly became half
as large, by what amount would the Sun's gravitational $acceleration$ of the
Earth change?
A) half
as large.
B) 4
times as large.
C)
unchanged.
D)
twice as large.
E) 1/4
as large.
-----------
115. On which objects in the solar system have volcanos been
observed
actually erupting?
A)
Earth
B)
Earth, Mars, and Io
C)
Mercury, Earth, and Mars
D)
Moon, Earth, Mars, and Jupiter
E)
Earth and Io
-----------
116. If Mars were moved twice as far from the Sun
as it is at the present moment, the gravitational force that the Sun exerts on
Mars would become
A) half
as large.
B)
unchanged.
C) 4
times as large.
D)
twice as large.
E) 1/4 as
large.
-----------
117. The outer Galilean moons of Jupiter are
thought to consist
primarily
of
A)
hydrogen, methane, and ammonia.
B) rock
with a little water (liquid or solid).
C)
metals and rock.
D)
carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
E)
water (liquid or solid), with some rock.
-----------
118. If Mars were moved twice as close to the Sun
as it is at the present moment, the gravitational force that the Sun exerts on
Mars would become
A) 4
times as large.
B)
unchanged.
C)
twice as large.
D) 1/4
as large.
E) half
as large.
-----------
119. Question deleted
.
-----------
120. As viewed from the Earth, some planets appear
to double back in their orbits for a while (retrograde motion). This is due to:
A) none
of the other answers is correct.
B) the
planets really do reverse their motion through space, because of outside
forces.
C) the
planets move on secondary orbits called epicycles, whose centers are in orbit
about the Earth.
D) the
fact that the planets are in orbit about the Sun rather than about the Earth.
E)
precession - the wobble of the Earth's axis of rotation.
-----------
121. One satellite known to possess an atmosphere
is
A) Phobos
B) Oberon
C) Ceres
D) Titan
E)
Ganymede
-----------
122. Ancient Greek astronomers believed that the
Earth is immobile, and therefore at the center of the universe, because they
did not observe
A)
curvature of the Earth.
B)
eclipses of the Sun.
C) All
of the other answers are correct.
D)
parallaxes for the stars.
E)
retrograde motion of the planets.
-----------
123. William Herschel, while mapping the sky in
1781,
accidentally
discovered
A) Mars
B)
C) Saturn
D) Pluto
E) Uranus
-----------
124. Kepler's third law
can be stated as
A)
P=a
B)
F=ma
C)
velocity = distance per unit time.
D)
P$^2$ = a$^3$
-----------
125. Uranus appears as a greenish disk due to the
presence of
A) hydrogen
B) ammonia
C) nitrogen
D) helium
E)
methane
-----------
126. ``For every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction'', or ``action-reaction'', are statements of
A)
Galileo's theory of motion.
B) Kepler's first law of planetary motion.
C) the
correspondence principle.
D) the
theory of relativity.
E)
-----------
127. To the best of our present knowledge, the
composition of
Pluto
is most similar to
A) the
terrestrial planets.
B) the
Jovian planets.
C) Io.
D)
typical satellites of Jovian planets.
E) the
Earth's Moon.
-----------
128. In the process known as diffraction, when a
wave comes to a narrow opening, the wave will:
A) pass
through the opening, and then start to spread out.
B) pass
through the opening, and then become focused on one point.
C) pass
through the opening, and then continue on looking just like it did before the
opening.
D) be
reflected backwards.
E) turn
into a Tsunami.
-----------
129. The two planets whose orbits cross (i.e. one
planet
periodically
gets closer to the Sun than the other planet)
are
A)
Mercury and Venus
B)
Venus and Earth
C)
Uranus and Neptune
D)
Neptune and Pluto
E) Mars
and Jupiter
-----------
130. A certain amount of energy is added to an
atom to lift an electron from one orbit to another. If the electron then goes back to the initial
orbit,
A) a
larger amount of energy is released.
B) the
same amount of energy must be added again.
C) the
same amount of energy is released.
D) a
smaller amount of energy is released.
-----------
131. The first person known to have looked at the
heavens
through
a telescope was
A) Tycho
B)
Galileo
C)
Ptolemy
D)
E) Kepler
-----------
132. An atom can absorb light if the energy of the
light
A) is
less than that of an electron.
B) is
less than that of a proton.
C)
moves an electron to a lower orbit.
D)
exceeds the energy difference between electron orbits.
E)
equals the energy difference between electron orbits.
-----------
133. The reason a heavy weight dropped on the
Earth falls at the
same
rate as a lighter weight is because, although the
heavier
object is attracted more by Earth's gravity, it
A)
attracts the Earth less than the lighter weight does.
B) has
more resistance due to friction with the air.
C) has
the same mass as the lighter object.
D)
starts out farther from the Earth.
E) has
a greater resistance to acceleration.
-----------
134. The distance between the Earth and the Sun is
called:
A) a
kilometer
B) an
astronomical unit
C) a
parsec
D) a lightyear
-----------
135.
of a
body when acted on by an external force is
A)
directly proportional to its mass.
B)
zero.
C)
proportional to its density.
D)
inversely proportional to its mass.
E)
independent of its mass.
-----------
136. The Hubble Deep Field is an image of the sky
taken with a very long exposure using the Hubble Space Telescope. Almost all of
the 5000 objects seen in that picture are:
A)
stars that are in our own Galaxy.
B) dirt
on the lens of the telescope.
C)
galaxies
D)
distant planets
-----------
137.
force
between any two masses in space is in proportion to
the
(1)_____
of
the masses and in (2)______ proportion to the square of
A) (1)
quotient; (2) direct.
B) (1)
product; (2) inverse.
C) (1)
product; (2) direct.
D) (1)
quotient; (2) inverse.
-----------
138. Precession is the 26,000 year wobble of the
Earth's axis of rotation. It was discovered by
A) Gyro
Gearloose
B) the
ancient Greeks
C) Kepler
D)
E)
Galileo
-----------
139. A common cause of the bulging of a planet at
its equator is
its
A)
density
B)
composition
C)
rotation
D)
revolution.
-----------
140. Ptolemy thought that the planets orbit the
Earth rather than the Sun. How did he explain the retrograde motion of planets
like Jupiter?
A) The
Sun roamed about among the planets and sometimes pulled them out of their
circular orbits.
B) The
planets moved in very elongated ellipses, and their speed in orbit changed
radically over the course of a year.
C) The
planets moved on a small circle whose center in turn circled a point near
Earth.
D) The
planets moved along a circle centered on the Earth, sometimes in a forward
direction and sometimes in a backward direction.
-----------
141. One effect of the Earth's tides is to
A)
change the length of the year.
B)
slowly increase the length of our day.
C) pull
the Moon closer to the Earth.
D) make
the Earth's axis precess with a 26,000 year period.
-----------
142. Which is the best definition of ``the
Universe''?
A) The
system that includes our Sun and its planets.
B) All
of the places we could possibly get to, disregarding light travel time.
C) The
gravitationally interacting assemblage of 100 billion stars that we call the
Milky Way.
D) All
of the places that we can presently see with the largest telescopes.
-----------
143. Direct evidence that the Earth rotates on its
axis, rather
than
the celestial sphere going around the earth, is
provided
by observations of
A)
parallax of stars.
B)
aberration of starlight.
C)
rising and setting of the stars.
D)
precession.
E) the
Foucault pendulum.
-----------
144. ``Occam's Razor'' expresses the idea that if
you have two competing theories trying to explain the same observed phenomenon,
the one that is most likely to be correct is
A) the
most complex theory.
B) the
newest theory.
C) the
most popular theory.
D) the
simplest theory
E) the
oldest theory.
-----------
145. Both stellar parallaxes and the aberration of
starlight are
a
consequence of
A) the
precession of the Earth's axis.
B) the
presence of the Earth's atmosphere.
C) the
rotation of the Earth.
D) the
inclination of the ecliptic to the celestial equator.
E) the
revolution of the Earth about the Sun.
-----------
146. When Kepler's 3rd
law (relating periods and sizes of orbits) is derived using
A) the
change in speed of the planet as it moves around its orbit.
B) the
sum of the masses of the two bodies involved in the orbit.
C) the
eccentricity of the orbit.
D) the
tilt of the orbit.
-----------
147. The conditions for a solar eclipse are
A)
first quarter Moon; Moon near ecliptic.
B) Moon
at new phase; Moon near ecliptic.
C) full
Moon; Moon near ecliptic.
-----------
148. How do we know that light behaves like a
wave?
A)
Because it moves at the speed of light.
B)
Because it does many of the same things that water waves and sound waves
do, including diffraction.
C) Because
it has different colors.
D)
Because it never behaves like a particle.
-----------
149. A planet will be most likely to keep its atmosphere if it
is
A) cold
and has a strong gravitational field.
B) hot
and has a strong gravitational field.
C) hot
and has a weak gravitational field.
D) None
of the other answers is correct.
E) cold
and has a weak gravitational field.
-----------
150. If the source of a wave is moving along the
line of sight, a stationary observer sees a change in the emitted wavelength.
This effect can be observed in
A) only
light.
B) only
water waves.
C)
visible light but not in infrared light.
D) only
sound waves.
E) all
types of waves.
-----------
151. The greatest difference between the
atmospheres of the
Jovian
and terrestrial planets is that Jovian atmospheres
contain
much more
A)
water vapor
B)
oxygen
C)
carbon dioxide
D)
hydrogen
E)
nitrogen
-----------
152. Which of the following is one of the two
basic postulates of Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity?
A) The
wavelength of light is shifted when the source is viewed by an observer moving
at a different speed.
B) The
total energy of a system stays constant.
C)
Light is measured to move at the same speed, no matter how fast or in
what direction you are moving relative to the light source when you measure it.
D) The
momentum of an object remains constant unless the object is acted upon by a
force.
-----------
153. Both Mars and Venus have atmospheres composed
mainly of
A) True
B)
False
-----------
154. (Hint: Wien's Displacement Law). The
wavelength at which the maximum energy is radiated from a black body is
A)
inversely proportional to temperature ($\lambda_{max} = const/T$).
B)
directly proportional to temperature ($\lambda_{max} = const * T$).
C)
directly proportional to the fourth power of temperature ($\lambda_{max}
= const * T^4$).
D)
proportional to the inverse square of temperature ($\lambda_{max} =
const / T^2$).
E)
independent of the temperature.
-----------
155. Regarding the origin of the Moon we think
that it
collisional
fragmentation theory.
A) was
pulled out of the Earth.
B) was
formed relatively recently, compared to Earth.
C)
condensed out of material near the Earth.
D) was
captured as it passed near the Earth.
E) is
not fully understood.
-----------
156. Our Milky Way Galaxy consists of
A) The
Sun and its 9 planets.
B) All
of the actual stars in the Universe.
C) A
compact car formerly produced by Ford Motor Company.
D) a
system of 100 billion stars held together by their mutual gravitational
attraction.
E) A
cluster of about 100,000 stars which orbits about the
-----------
157. The planet whose surface looks most like the
Moon is
A) Mars
B)
Earth
C)
Venus
D)
Mercury
E) No
planet looks even remotely like the Moon.
-----------
158. The first person to use the telescope for
astronomy was
A) Jack
Baldwin
B) Tycho Brahe
C) Kepler
D)
E) Galileo
-----------
159. The observation that the surface of Venus is
significantly
hotter
than the Earth's can be explained
A) by
the fact that Venus rotates very slowly.
B)
completely by the fact that Venus is closer to the Sun.
C) by
the fact that Venus has no Moon to draw off heat.
D)
mostly by the greenhouse effect of Venus' atmosphere.
-----------
160. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
form of energy?
Which of the following was NOT known by the
early Greeks?
A) The Sun
is at the center of the solar system.
B) The
approximate diameter of the Earth.
C) The
Earth is round.
D) The
concept of parallax.
E) The
fact that the Earth wobbles on its axis (precession).
-----------
161. The surface of Venus has not been seen with
telescopes on
the
Earth due to
A) the
great distance between the Earth and Venus.
B)
clouds on Venus.
C)
interplanetary dust.
D) the
glare of the nearby Sun.
-----------
162. The term "lookback time" refers to:
A) the
time required to spin around and see what is behind you.
B) the
time at which some specific event occured in a
distant object.
C) any
point in time before the present.
D) the
time required for light to travel from a distant source to an observer on
Earth.
E) the time
at which the Big Bang occured.
-----------
163. In general, the younger a region on the Moon,
the
A)
fewer cracks or rills it has.
B)
fewer craters it has.
C) more
craters it has.
D)
farther it is from Earth.
E)
farther it is from the center of the Moon.
-----------
164. An important difference between Kepler's 3 Laws and
A) Kepler thought the Earth was at the center, while
B) Kepler had better data and therefore worked out a more
precise model.
C)
Newton did not include epicycles in his model.
D) Kepler's laws described the orbits of the planets,
E) Kepler could not predict solar eclipses, while
-----------
165. The Viking landers
showed that
A)
there is most likely no life on Mars.
B)
there are frequent ground quakes on Mars.
C) Mars
has super lightening bolts.
D) the
atmosphere of Mars is mostly nitrogen.
-----------
166. A)
B) Kepler thought the Earth was at the center, while
C) Kepler had better data and therefore worked out a more
precise model.
D) Kepler could not predict solar eclipses, while
E) Kepler's laws described the orbits of the planets,
-----------
167. At the north pole of Mars, the polar cap that
lasts all
summer
is composed primarily of
A)
water ice
B)
frozen nitrogen
C) fine
particles of sand
D) a
mixture of liquid and frozen water (slush)
E) frozen carbon dioxide
-----------
168. ****GENE****
A) Kepler's laws
described the orbits of the planets,
B)
C) Kepler had better data and therefore worked out a more
precise model.
D) Kepler could not predict solar eclipses, while
E) Kepler thought the Earth was at the center, while
-----------
169. On which planet have features been
photographed that look
like
erosion patterns from flowing water?
A)
Jupiter
B)
Venus
C)
Mercury
D) Mars
E)
Uranus
-----------
170. A) Kepler had better data and therefore worked out a more
precise model.
B) Kepler thought the Earth was at the center, while
C) Kepler's laws described the orbits of the planets,
D) Kepler could not predict solar eclipses, while
E)
-----------
171. The Great Red Spot on Jupiter apparently is
A) an
illusion caused by the atmosphere acting like a lens.
B) a
hot area produced by falling matter from space.
C) a
result of a Moon pulling on the magnetic field.
D) a
long-lasting cyclonic system in the clouds.
E) an
updraft produced by winds hitting mountains.
-----------
172. On the assumption that the Earth is
spherical, Eratosthenes estimated the Earth's circumference from measurements
made at
A) the
direction of the Sun.
B) the
distance to the Sun.
C) the
brightness of the Sun.
D) the
apparent size of the Sun.
-----------
173. Io, the inner Galilean satellite of Jupiter,
is apparently
heated
as a result of
A) a
slow compression of the satellite.
B)
friction with Jupiter's outer atmosphere.
C)
impacts of objects hitting its surface.
D)
decay of radioactive elements.
E)
friction by tides caused by Jupiter.
-----------
174. Kepler's second law
states that the line joining the Sun to a planet
A)
covers an area equal to the cube of its length.
B)
moves more slowly the closer it is to the Sun.
C) None
of the choices given here is correct.
D)
covers equal distances in equal times.
E)
sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
-----------
175. The object with the greatest number of active
volcanoes in
the
solar system is
A)
Miranda
B) Io
C) Mars
D)
Earth
E)
Venus
-----------
176. The rate of change of the velocity of a body
is called the body's
A)
mass.
B)
kinetic energy.
C)
applied force.
D)
acceleration.
E)
momentum
-----------
177. Question deleted
-----------
178. Hydrogen, the simplest of the chemical
elements, consists of
A) a
single electron revolving around a single proton.
B) a
single electron revolving around a single electron.
C) a
single proton revolving around a single electron.
D) None
of the other answers.
E) a
single electron revolving around a single neutron.
-----------
179. Saturn's Moon Titan is unusual in that it
A) has
dry ice (frozen carbon dioxide) clouds.
B) has
active volcanoes.
C) is
much larger than any other satellite.
D) has
an extensive atmosphere.
E) is
cold.
-----------
180. The particles found in the nucleus of an atom
are
A)
electrons and protons.
B)
protons and neutrons.
C)
electrons and neutrons.
D)
electrons, neutrons and protons.
-----------
181. On the basis of unexplained deviations in the
orbit of
Uranus,
existence
of
A) Mars
B)
Uranus
C) Neptune
D) Saturn
E) Pluto
-----------
182. If you made a movie of an atom absorbing
light, and played the movie backwards, it would show an atom
A)
being ionized.
B)
violating the laws of physics.
C)
recombining.
D)
absorbing light.
E)
emitting light.
-----------
183. To the best of our present knowledge, Pluto
is most similar
to
A) the
Earth's Moon.
B) the
terrestrial planets.
C) Io.
D) the
Jovian planets.
E)
typical satellites of Jovian planets such as Ganymede.
-----------
184. When an atom emits a photon in a given
spectral line, the energy of the photon is determined by
A) the
speed of the atom across the line of sight.
B) the
energy lost by the electron changing orbits.
C) the
temperature of the atom.
D)
whether the electrons move to a smaller or larger orbit.
E) the
distance from the atom to the observer.
-----------
185. The planet discovered in 1930 by Clyde
Tombaugh at the
Lowell
Observatory in
A)
B)
Uranus
C)
Mercury
D) Callisto
E)
Pluto
-----------
186. Compared to spectral lines of helium gas, the
spectral lines of hydrogen gas
A) are
more likely to be absorption lines.
B)
appear fainter.
C) are
more likely to be emission lines.
D) have
completely different wavelengths.
E) are
shifted to shorter wavelengths.
-----------
187. The planets for which the relationship given
by Bode's law
fails
to give the correct orbit size by more than 10% are
A)
Uranus and Pluto
B) Mars
and Neptune
C)
Pluto and Neptune
D)
Jupiter and Neptune
-----------
188. If an electron is completely detached from an
atom
A) the
atom is ionized.
B) the
atom is in its ground state.
C) the
atom is at absolute zero.
D) the
atom is an isotope.
-----------
189. The largest asteroid (minor planet) has a
diameter of
A) 1
kilometer - .6 miles
B) 1000
kilometers - 600 miles
C) 300
kilometers - 180 miles
D) 100
kilometers - 60 miles
E) 20
kilometers - 12 miles
-----------
190. Ions are atoms with
A)
fewer electrons than protons.
B) no
electrons.
C) a
different number of electrons than protons.
D) more
electrons than protons.
-----------
191. The diameters of most observed asteroids are
A)
100-500 miles.
B) a
mile or so.
C)
several hundred miles.
D) over
1000 miles.
E)
50-100 miles.
-----------
192. What force holds an electron in orbit in the
hydrogen atom?
A) The
gravity of the proton.
B) A
magnetic field.
C) The
attraction of like electrical charges.
D) It
needs no force to stay in orbit.
E) The
attraction of opposite electrical charges.
-----------
193. Ceres, although originally believed to be a
major planet,
actually
belongs to the group of objects called:
A)
asteroids
B)
comets
C)
meteorites
D)
meteoroids
-----------
194. Atoms make spectral lines because
A)
electrons have only certain allowed orbits.
B)
photons have only certain allowed orbits.
C)
speed of light in a vacuum is a constant.
D)
light consists of waves.
-----------
195. Halley's Comet had been observed several
times before
A)
False
B) True
-----------
196. The difference between a normal atom and its
ion is the fact that the ion
A) has
more static electricity in its nucleus.
B) is
moving more slowly than a normal atom.
C)
weighs more than the atom.
D) None
of the other answers is correct.
E)
doesn't have the usual number of electrons for that atom.
-----------
197. The period of Halley's Comet is (in years)
about
A) 245
B) 93
C) 145
D) 35
E) 76
-----------
198. A black body emits an amount of radiation
from each unit area of its surface that is proportional to
A) the inverse
square of its absolute temperature.
B) the
cube of its temperature divided by the mass.
C) the
fourth power of its absolute temperature.
D) the
fourth power of the wavelength.
-----------
199. One surprise from close-up observations of
Halley's comet
was
that the nucleus
A) was
nearly spherical
B)
appeared to consist of only one piece
C) was
so dark
D) was
covered with craters
E) was
so small
-----------
200. In the particle picture of light, light
particles are called \_\_\_\_ and have energy associated with the \_\_\_\_\_ in
the wave picture.
A)
neutrons, wavelength
B)
protons, speed
C)
electrons, frequency
D)
photons, waveheight
E)
photons, wavelength
-----------
201. Kepler's laws of
motion imply that comets with highly
elliptical
orbits will
A)
spend most of their time at great distances from the Sun.
B)
travel with a uniform velocity.
C)
spend most of their time near the Sun.
D) be
confined to the plane of the ecliptic.
-----------
202. The primary reason that telescopes used for
measuring visible light are being made larger and larger is:
A) to
make sharp images (very small angular resolution).
B) to
gather as much light as possible.
C) to
magnify images greatly.
D) to
show colors correctly.
-----------
203. Short-period comets
A) are
a result of Jupiter's gravitational field.
B)
spend all their time in the Oort cloud.
C) have
only one tail.
D) are
larger than long-period comets.
-----------
204. The primary reason that radio telescopes are
made larger by spreading them out across whole continents is:
A) to
gather as much light as possible.
B) to
magnify images greatly.
C) to
make sharp images (very small angular resolution).
D) to
show colors correctly.
-----------
205. What forces a comet's tail away from the
head?
A) The
tail has a larger orbit around the Sun.
B)
Lighter particles naturally go slower.
C) Both
radiation pressure and solar wind.
D)
Heavier particles naturally go slower.
E)
Gravitational pull from the Sun and planets.
-----------
206. What sort of light does the Chandra telescope
measure?
A)
Seismic waves.
B) Red
light.
C)
Ultraviolet light.
D)
Infrared light
E)
X-rays.
-----------
207. A "new" comet, making its first
pass by the Sun, approaches
the
Sun on an orbit which is
A)
usually in the plane of the ecliptic.
B)
somewhat eccentric, reaching the orbit of
C)
about as circular as an asteroid's orbit.
D) a
spiral, continually circling and approaching the Sun.
E) very
eccentric, reaching the limit of the solar system.
-----------
208. An advantage of a large reflecting telescope
over a refractor of the same size is that the objective of a reflector
A) does
not make the image appear upside down.
B) has
considerably more light-gathering power.
C) has
better resolving power.
D) can
be mechanically supported across its back surface.
E) has
a greater magnifying power.
-----------
209. The nucleus of a comet is about ______ in radius.
A) 160
km - 100 miles
B) 16
km - 10 miles
C) 1600
km - 1000 miles
-----------
210. The largest telescopes used for observation
in the visible (optical) region of the spectrum
A) are
refracting telescopes.
B)
suffer from chromatic aberration.
C) are
reflecting telescopes.
D) are
radio telescopes.
-----------
211. A vast cloud or reservoir of comets has been
proposed by
H. Oort to be revolving around the Sun in a region
A)
50,000 to 150,000 A.U. from the Sun.
B)
occupied by the nearest stars.
C) 50
to 100 A.U. from the Sun.
D) just
outside the orbit of Pluto.
-----------
212. If galaxy A has a velocity of recession that
is 3 times larger than that of galaxy B, what is the ratio of the distances of
the two galaxies?
A)
Galaxy A is 9 times closer than galaxy B.
B) Both
galaxies are at the same distance.
C)
Galaxy A is 3 times closer than galaxy B.
D)
Galaxy A is 9 times farther away than galaxy B.
E)
Galaxy A is 3 times farther away than galaxy B.
-----------
213. Meteors are usually best observed between
A)
sunrise and noon.
B)
midnight and sunrise.
C) sunset
and midnight.
D) noon
and sunset.
-----------
214. How does the General Theory of Relativity
describe gravity?
A) As a
force that acts from a distance.
B) As a
particle that travels between objects.
C) As a
law passed by the
D) As a
stretching and bending of the geometry of space.
E) y
the fact that light moves at a constant speed.
-----------
215. Which of the following is only visible for a
few seconds?
A)
lunar eclipse
B)
meteor
C)
comets
-----------
216. What is the approximate diameter of our own
Galaxy (the Milky Way)?
A)
100,000 light years
B) 10
light years
C)
1,000,000,000 light years
D)
1,000,000 miles
E) 1000
light years
-----------
217. The Perseid meteor
shower results from
A) small
minor planets
B)
fireballs
C)
solar wind
D)
carbon dioxide
E)
comet debris
-----------
218. When were most of the hydrogen and helium
found on Earth formed?
A) By
the radioactive decay of uranium and iron.
B) When
the collision of the earth with an asteroid killed the dinosaurs.
C) When
the Earth captured the Moon.
D) When
the universe was only a few minutes old..
E) In
the center of the Sun after it started to have thermonuclear reactions.
-----------
219. Which type of meteorite is most common to see
in museums
and
why?
A)
stony; they have an unusual low density for stones.
B)
stony; most meteorites hitting Earth are stony.
C)
stony; they look unusual hitting Earth.
D)
iron; most meteorites hitting Earth are iron.
E) iron;
they look unusual and don't crumble.
-----------
220. How do we know that the universe is expanding
from a very much smaller size?
A)
Because it has a flat geometry.
B)
Because we see Cosmic Microwave Background radiation coming from all
directions.
C)
Because the velocity of recession of distant galaxies is proportional to
their distance.
D) From
the combination of two of the other answers.
E) None
of the other answers are correct.
-----------
221. A meteor radiant is the
A)
point in the sky from which a meteorite is seen to fall.
B)
radiation we receive from meteors.
C)
brightest meteor of a shower of meteors.
D)
luminous trail of a bolide.
E)
point in the sky from which shower meteor trails diverge.
-----------
222. Which best describes the orbit of the Sun
through our Galaxy?
A) A
circular orbit tipped at a large angle relative to the plane of the disk.
B) An
elongated orbit tipped at a large angle relative to the plane of the disk.
C) It
sits stationary at a great distance from the center of the Galaxy.
D) None
of the other answers is correct.
E) A
circular orbit in the plane of the disk.
-----------
223. The Barringer
meteor crater is a mile wide. The asteroid
A) 1
mile
B) 10
yards
C) 1
millionth of an inch
D) 0.1
inch
E) 10
miles
-----------
224. Which best describes the orbit of a typical
star that is part of our Galaxy's halo?
A) A
circular orbit tipped at a large angle relative to the plane of the disk.
B) A
circular orbit in the plane of the disk.
C) None
of the other answers is correct.
D) An
elongated orbit tipped at a large angle relative to the plane of the disk.
E) It
sits stationary at a great distance from the center of the Galaxy.
-----------
225. What effect of a meteor impact may have
killed the
dinosaurs?
A)
increased ocean tides
B)
shock wave
C) dust
blocking sunlight
D)
being hit by small fragments
E) a
change in the Earth's orbit
-----------
226. The basic source of energy of quasars is:
A)
Matter-antimatter reactions.
B)
Nuclear reactions inside the black hole.
C)
Nuclear reactions in stars.
D) The
release of gravitational potential energy as gas falls onto a disk around the
central black hole.
E)
High-energy particles escaping from the central black hole.
-----------
227. Meteorites are best seen
A)
shortly before sunrise.
B) in
museums.
C) in
November.
D)
shortly after sundown.
-----------
228. The main classifications of galaxies are:
A)
OBAFGKM
B)
Elliptical, Spiral and Prime.
C)
Convex, Concave and Square
D)
Spherical, Elliptical and Spiral
E)
Elliptical, Spiral and Irregular
-----------
229. Which of the following is now visible as a
well-formed
crater?
A)
Serpent Mound,
B)
C) Barringer meteor crater
D)
-----------
230. Through which fundamental force does Dark
Matter interact with normal matter?
A) the centripital force.
B) the
electromagnetic force.
C) dark
matter and normal matter do not interact through any force.
D)
light
E) the
gravitational force
-----------
231. A faint glow, concentrated along the ecliptic
and sometimes
seen
in the west as darkness falls or in the east just
before
it gets light, is known as the
A) asteroidal glow
B)
Zodiacal light
C)
ecliptic light
D)
Milky Way
E)
ecliptic glow
-----------
232. The inflation model predicts that the
geometry of the universe should be
A) it
does not make any prediction about the geometry
B) open
(negative curvature; 4D version of a potato chip)
C)
obtuse
D) flat
E)
closed (positive curvature; 4D version of a ball)
-----------
233. The wavelength of red light is
A)
shorter than the wavelength of blue light.
B)
longer than the wavelength of blue light.
C)
stronger than white light.
D) of a
higher frequency than that of blue light.
-----------
234. What force currently works to SLOW DOWN the
expansion of the universe?
A)
Electrostatic attraction between atomic nuclei.
B) The
cosmological constant.
C) The
kinetic energy contained in the motion of the galaxies.
D)
Gravitational attraction of all matter for all other matter.
E)
Reluctance of small investors to buy stocks even at today's depressed
prices.
-----------
235. If a radar astronomer sends a radio pulse
toward the sun,
before
being able to observe the reflected
pulse coming
back
from the sun, he would just have time to
A)
blink his eyes.
B) read
Tolstoy's
C) have
a cup of coffe and a doughnut.
D)
serve a term as a
-----------
236. The carbon and oxygen in our bodies was
formed in
A)
stars.
B) the
big-bang explosion of the universe.
C) the
epoch during which the universe inflated in size by a huge factor.
D) the
hot gas that preceeded the decoupling of the Cosmic
Microwave Background.E. plant life on Earth.
-----------
237. Since blue photons have more energy than red
photons, they
A) True
B)
False
-----------
238. How would astronomers measure the mass that
our Galaxy contains inside the orbit of the Sun?
A)
Measure the average total luminosity of nearby galaxies similar to our
Galaxy, and use that to estimate the number of stars and hence the total mass.
B) Add
up all of the emission coming from hydrogen clouds in our Galaxy, since gas
clouds comprise most of the mass.
C)
Measure the distance to the center of the Galaxy and the Sun's orbital
period about the center, then use Kepler's third law.
D)
Count the number of stars in some typical unit volume of space, and then
multiply by the total volume inside the Sun's orbit.
E)
There is no known way to measure this quantity.
-----------
239. The speed of light in a vacuum is
A) 300,000 km/sec
B) 18,600,000,000 cm/sec
C) 18,600,000,000 km/sec
D) 0.00003 km/sec
E) 30,000,000,000 km/sec
-----------
240. Which of the following best describes the
density wave theory of how spiral arms are formed and maintained?
A)
Spiral arms are strings of globular clusters, like pearls on a necklace.
B)
Spiral arms are paths where friction due to higher gas density is causing
material to spiral down into the center of the galaxy.
C)
Spiral arms are caused by jets shot out of the center of the galaxy
being wound up due to differential rotation.
D)
Spiral arms are regions of higher density; the extra gravitational attraction
causes passing stars to slow down as they pass through the arm, thus
perpetuating the traffic jam.
E)
Spiral arms are caused by stars being ejected from the nucleus of a
galaxy and pinwheeling out into space.
-----------
241. Letting light pass through two or more
closely-spaced slits
is
important because it demonstrates that waves from each
slit
A)
cause atoms to absorb the light.
B)
produce the photoelectric effect.
C)
travel at the same speed as waves from other slits.
D)
interfere with waves from other slits.
E) can
produce absorption lines.
-----------
242. Which of the following statements about the
implications of Hubble's Law is FALSE?
A) The
law requires us to be at the center of an expanding universe.
B) The
constant H$_0$ that relates velocity to distance has been recalibrated by
factor of several since Hubble's original work.
C) If
you were observing the universe from some distant galaxy, you would still see
the same effect (all of the galaxies moving away from you).
D) The
law can be used to measure distances to remote galaxies for which we can
measure a Doppler shift.
E) The
whole universe must be expanding.
-----------
243. When comparing water waves and light waves,
we find that
A) only
light waves can reflect off barriers.
B) only
water waves interfere with each other.
C) only
light waves interfere with each other.
D) only
light waves display Doppler shifts.
E) both
spread out after passing through a narrow opening.
-----------
244. Which component of our Galaxy contains the
largest amount of mass?
A)
Population I stars.
B)
Halo.
C) Dark
matter.
D)
Disk.
E)
Nuclear bulge.
-----------
245. The wave nature of light is demonstrated by
A) the
photoelectric effect.
B)
diffraction and interference of light.
C) the
fact light can have different colors.
D)
reflection of light.
E)
spectral lines.
-----------
246. The Principle of Equivalence as used in
General Relativity says that that an observer cannot tell the difference
between acceleration and
A)
gravity.
B)
time.
C)
deceleration.
D) a
falling elevator.
E)
being inside a black hole.
-----------
247. Upon passing through a prisim,
blue light is refracted
(bent)
more than red light because in the prisim
A) red
light has a longer wavelength than blue light.
B) blue
light is slowed more than red light.
C) red
light is slowed more than blue light.
D) blue
light has greater energy than red light.
-----------
248. Oops! You take the wrong exit on I96 and find
yourself trapped $inside$ the Schwarzschild radius (event horizon) of a black
hole. You use your cell phone to try to send a radio SOS message back to the
AAA (who prudently have located their office outside the Schwarzschild radius).
What will be the fate of that message?
A) The
message will make it to the AAA in fine shape with all information intact (but
your call will be put on hold).
B) The
radio waves will emerge from the Schwarzschild radius with a huge gravitational
redshift.
C) The
message will never emerge from the Schwarzschild radius.
D) The
message will make it to AAA but all of its information will be randomly
garbled.
E) The
radio waves will emerge from the Schwarzschild radius as gamma rays.
-----------
249. A simple convex lens forms the image of a
distant point
source
at a place called the
A)
focal length
B)
focal point
C)
object point
D)
objective
-----------
250. Why do we think that quasars are extremely
luminous?
A) We
cannot measure any parallax for them, so they must be far away and therefore
very luminous.
B) They
are powered by black holes, which always are very luminous objects.
C) We
can see that they are much larger in diameter than any normal galaxy, so they
must be much more luminous as well.
D)
Their position on the H-R diagram indicates that they must be more
luminous than any stars.
E)
Their large redshifts plus Hubble's Law indicate very large distances,
so they must be very luminous to produce the observed flux.
-----------
251. Which combination of lens parameters will
give the
brightest
image of a faint comet?
A)
large diameter, short focal length
B)
small diameter, short focal length
C)
small diameter, long focal length
D)
large diameter, long focal length
-----------
252. Based on the variabilty
of the light, which is the best size estimate for the central light source in a
typical quasar?
A) 1000
light years.
B)
Similar in size to our Solar System
C)
Larger than our Galaxy
D)
Smaller than a breadbox.
E) 100
light years.
-----------
253. For a given wavelength of light, the thoretical resolving
power
of a telescope depends on the
A)
magnification of the telescope.
B)
brightness of the object under observation.
C)
distance to the object under observation.
D)
focal length of the objective.
E)
diameter of the objective.
-----------
254. If we watch from afar as an astronaut falls
into a black hole, which of the following effects would we $NOT$ be able to see
even in principle?
A) The
astronaut never quite reaching the Schwarzschild radius.
B) The
astronaut getting older at an ever-slowing rate.
C) The
astronaut being horribly stretched out by tidal forces near the Schwarzschild
radius.
D) The
way in which the astronaut is mashed up into the infinitely dense material at
the center.
E) We
could see all of these things happen.
-----------
255. The bigger the primary lens or mirror in a
telescope,
A) the
redder objects seen through it appear.
B) the
farther away objects seen through it would appear.
C) None
of the other answers is correct.
D) the
bigger the area of the sky one can see at one time.
E) the
more light the telescope collects.
-----------
256. If the universe has a closed geometry
(positive curvature, described by the surface of a sphere in our 2D analogy),
which of the following would be true?
A) It
would have infinite volume.
B) It
could not be expanding.
C) Two
lines which are parallel at a given point would never cross each other at any
other point.
D)
Hubble's Law could not occur.
E) It
would be possible to construct triangles in which each angle is 90$^o$.
-----------
257. Spherical mirrors are not normally used in a
telescope due
to
the fact
A) they
cause coma.
B) they
cause spherical aberration.
C) they
are hard to make.
D) they
cause chromatic aberration.
-----------
258. What is the source of the Cosmic Microwave
Background radiation?
A) It
is emitted by stars in distant galaxies.
B) It
is photons left over from a time when the Universe was denser, and was filled
by hot, opaque gas.
C) It
is emitted by supernovae in galaxies in the Local Supercluster.
D) It
comes from the disk of the Milky Way.
E) It
comes from cold gas (3$^o$ K) at the edge of the universe.
-----------
259. The largest fully operating optical telescope
in the
A)
Palomar
B)
Yerkes
C)
Lowell
D) Lick
E) Keck
-----------
260. The expansion of the Universe, according to
astronomers, is:
A) a
prediction of $one$ theory of cosmology for which the evidence is very controversial.
B) a
piece of established observational evidence which any theory of cosmology must
include.
C)
making all of the planets in our solar system harder to reach, driving
up NASA budgets.
D) the
opposite of what Hubble's law describes.
E) a
theory for which there is no observational evidence.
-----------
261. When looking at Mars through a telescope, one
sees the
image
shimmering as a result of
A)
convection currents in the atmosphere of Mars.
B)
defects in the eyepiece lens.
C)
Martians.
D) dust
storms on Mars.
E)
turbulence in the Earth's atmosphere.
-----------
262. Which of the following statements about dark
matter is FALSE?
A) It
is observed to be a major part of the Milky Way.
B) We
can detect its gravity, even though we can't see it.
C) It
is observed to be present in other groups of galaxies.
D)
Astronomers have a pretty good idea what the dark matter is made of.
E) It
appears to make up most of the matter in the universe.
-----------
263. The most important reason for placing
telescopes in orbit
around
the Earth is to
A)
avoid interference of clouds.
B)
detect wavelengths that don't penetrate our atmosphere.
C)
avoid rotating telescopes to follow stars across the sky.
D)
avoid problems of light emitted by our atmosphere.
E)
observe during the daytime.
-----------
264. A) It
appears to make up most of the matter in the universe.
B)
Astronomers have a pretty good idea what the dark matter is made of.
C) It
is observed to be a major part of the Milky Way.
D) We
can detect its gravity, even though we can't see it.
E) It
is observed to be present in other groups of galaxies.
-----------
265. Ceres, the largest asteroid, has a diameter
of about
A) 1
kilometer - .6 miles
B) 300
kilometers - 180 miles
C) 20
kilometers - 12 miles
D)
1000 kilometers - 600 miles
E) 100
kilometers - 60 miles
-----------
266. Which of the following best describes the
inflation model of the universe?
A) The
scale factor increased by a huge amount in a very short period of time early in
the life of the universe, then continued to increase at a much slower rate.
B) The
universe expanded to a large size very early on, and now is steadily collapsing
back to a single point.
C) The
universe first swelled up to an enormous size, then collapsed back down to the
approximate size we see today.
D) The
universe has always been expanding at a roughly constant rate.
E) The
amount that money can buy steadily decreases with time.
-----------
267. Most meteors are caused by material from
A)
comets.
B)
Earth's Moon.
C)
Jupiter.
D)
large moons of Jupiter.
E)
asteroids.
-----------
268. The Doppler shift, measured from the change
in wavelength of emission or absorption lines in the spectrum of a galaxy, tells
us
A) the
speed of light in the direction of that galaxy.
B) the
velocity of that galaxy perpendicular to the line of sight.
C) the
velocity of that galaxy along the line of sight.
D) the
chemical composition of that galaxy.
E) the
temperature of that galaxy.
-----------
269. Which of the following killed over 15,000
reindeer, and
produced
a shock measured around the world?
A)
Tunguska event in
B) Barringer meteor crater.
C)
Sudbury igneous complex.
D)
meteor of 63 million years ago.
-----------
270. The correct interpretation of Hubble's law is
that
A) the
universe is unchanging... it has always been like it is now.
B) our
own Galaxy is at the exact center of an exploding universe.
C) the
universe is spherical in shape.
D) the
universe is really just a big loaf of bread.
E) the
whole universe is uniformly expanding.
-----------
271. Periodic meteor showers are probably caused
through
interaction
of the Earth's atmosphere and debris from
A)
Saturn's rings.
B)
asteroids.
C) the
Sun.
D)
meteorite.
E)
comets.
-----------
272.
A) the
incorporation of time as a 4th dimension, in addition to the 3 space
dimensions.
B) a
force acting between any two objects with masses.
C)
objects moving in ellipses with P$^2$ = a$^3$.
D) the
curvature of space-time into an extra space dimension.
-----------
273. The largest number of meteors are seen
A) at
midnight.
B)
before midnight.
C)
after midnight.
-----------
274. The theory of Special Relativity shows that
observers moving at different constant velocities will see time pass at
different rates. This is due to
A)
daylight-savings time.
B) the
fact that each observer measures light to move at a different speed.
C) the
fact that clocks cannot operate properly at high speeds.
D) the
interconnection between time coordinates and space coordinates.
E) the
clock is moving faster than the speed of light, as seen by one of the
observers.
-----------
275. The best current models for a comet consider
them to be
made
mostly of
A)
loose, sandy grains.
B)
rock.
C) dirt
mixed with snow and ice.
D) pure
hydrogen.
-----------
276. The Principle of Equivalence states that
A) an
ISP205 final is equivalent to 5 years in the county jail.
B) the
speed of light is the same as seen from any moving coordinate system.
C) you
cannot tell the difference between gravity and acceleration.
D)
gravity and time are equivalent.
E)
nothing can move faster than the speed of light.
-----------
277. If a comet has two tails, one rather
featureless and the
other
showing much structure,
A) only
one tail would follow the comet through space.
B) both
would probably have bright spectral lines.
C) both
tails must follow the comet through space.
D) one
would probably be dust and the other gas.
E) both
would probably have dark spectral lines.
-----------
278. Which of the following is NOT a proof of the
theory of General Relativity?
A) The
precession of Mercury's orbit is more rapid than is predicted by
B) The
two stars in a binary system each orbit about the center of mass of the system.
C) The
strong gravitational field of white dwarfs redshifts the light emitted from
their surfaces.
D) Time
is observed to run more slowly in clocks when they are flown to high altitudes
above the Earth.
E) The
path of light from distant stars is bent by the Sun's gravitational field.
-----------
279. The quickest way to tell which way a comet is
moving in
A) True
B)
False
-----------
280. The Cosmic Microwave Background is
A) the
gravitational attraction from the most distant matter in the universe.
B) none
of the other answers are correct.
C)
light that is emitted by nearby galaxies.
D)
relic black-body radiation from an earlier, hotter stage of the
universe.
E)
radiation from the dark matter that is all around us.
-----------
281. The objects composed mostly of rock are the
A)
Jovian planets.
B)
comets.
C)
asteroids.
D) iron
meteorites.
-----------
282. Astronauts falling into a black hole would
not notice anything special happening as they fell through the Schwarzschild
radius. Watching from the outside, we would see the astronauts
A) age
very rapidly and disappear.
B)
bounce off the Schwarzschild radius.
C)
disappear from sight as they crossed the Schwarzschild radius.
D)
appear to get closer and closer to the Schwarzschild radius, but never
arrive there.
E) pass
right through the black hole and out the other side.
-----------
283. The largest asteroid
A) is
in orbit about Jupiter.
B) is
not much larger than a city block in size.
C) is
equal in size to one of the Galilean satellites.
D) was
discovered in 1961.
E) is
about 1,000 km (600 miles) in diameter.
-----------
284. A fairly massive black hole appears to reside
at the center of our own Galaxy. The evidence for this is:
A) We
see gigantic radio jets shooting out from the center of our Galaxy.
B) We
see from the orbits of stars very close to the Galactic center that there must
be a very massive object in there.
C)
Astronauts have been seen to fall into the black hole.
D) We
see periodic bursts of intense x-ray energy coming from the Galactic center.
E) When
we look at infra-red and radio wavelengths, we see a full-fledged quasar
shining away in the center of our own Galaxy.
-----------
285. The asteroids mostly lie between Mars and
A) Mercury
B) Uranus
C) Pluto
D) Jupiter
E)
Earth
-----------
286. What is currently believed to be the
approximate age of the universe?
A)
300,000 years.
B) It
has been here forever.
C) 14
million years.
D) 14
billion years.
E) 1
billion years.
-----------
287. Halley was the first to see Halley's comet.
A)
False
B) True
-----------
288. When we look over very large size scales in
space, what is the distribution of galaxies and clusters of galaxies?
A) They
are smoothly distributed throughout space.
B) The
density of these objects in space gets to be less the farther you go away from
Earth in any direction.
C) They
form the centers of large spheres of completely empty space.
D) They
lie on the surfaces of gigantic, intersecting bubbles.
E) They
all lie along one long line that connects back to the center of the universe.
-----------
289. Halley's Comet returns to the Sun about once
every
A) 76
years
B) 93
years
C) 159
years
D) 256
years
E) 35
years
-----------
290. The Cosmic Microwave Background radiation is
systematically slightly brighter in one direction and slightly fainter in the
opposite direction. What is this due to?
A) Becaue we are located near the edge of the universe, there
is more material in one direction than in the other direction.
B) Dust
has absorbed the CMB radiation from one direction.
C) The
Cosmic Microwave Background comes from stars within our Galaxy.
D) The
universe is sytematically hotter in one direction and
cooler in the opposite direction.
E)
Doppler shifting due to the motion of our galaxy in an orbit about the
Virgo cluster of galaxies.
-----------
291. The distance between the image that a distant
object forms
and
the lens (mirror) of a telescope is the _____ of the
A)
magnifying power
B)
refractor
C)
secondary
D)
focal length
E)
objective
-----------
292. What sort of matter makes up 90\% of all
matter?
A)
Stars.
B) Dark
matter.
C)
Income tax forms.
D)
Hydrogen gas between the galaxies.
E)
X-Ray emitting gas in galaxy clusters.
-----------
293. The main reason for using a parabolic mirror
in a telescope
instead
of a spherical one is
A) coma
can be avoided.
B) they
are cheaper.
C)
spherical aberration can be avoided.
D) they
reflect more light.
-----------
294. Gravitational lensing
shows that
A)
giant black holes exist at the centers of quasars.
B) the
Sun is located near the edge of our Galaxy.
C)
luminous matter makes up only 10\% of the total mass of giant galaxy
clusters.
D) the
universe has a flat geometry.
E) none
of the other answers is correct.
-----------
295. Twinkling of starlight is caused by
A) turbulance in the Earth's atmosphere.
B) the
solar wind.
C)
clouds in the ionosphere.
D)
signals from intelligent beings on other planets.
-----------
296. Our current understanding of how structures
formed in the Universe in the presence of dark matter shows that structures of
different sizes should have formed in what order?
A)
Largest first, smallest last (top down).
B)
Smallest first, largest last (bottom up).
C) All
size scales formed at the same time (simultaneous).
D) The
models make no prediction about this.
-----------
297. The world's largest telescope with a lens for
an objective
is
located at which observatory?
A)
B)
Palomar
C) Lick
D) Cerro Tololo
E) Yerkes
-----------
298. The recent balloon measurements of the Cosmic
Microwave Background show that the geometry of the universe is
A)
closed
B) open
C)
perfectly smooth
D)
contracting
E) flat
-----------
299. To find the total mass of a visual binary, we
need to first
find
its
A)
Doppler shift and proper motion.
B)
apparent magnitude and distance from Earth.
C)
space velocity and apparent orbit.
D) true
orbit and proper motion.
E)
distance from Earth and the apparent orbit.
-----------
300. Recent measurements of supernovae let us
accurately measure the relation between the redshifts of distant objects of
known luminosity and the flux (expressed in magnitude units) that we receive
from them . What is the suprising conclusion from
these observations?
A) The
universe is not expanding; rather it is contracting.
B) The
expansion rate of the universe is slowing down, rather than speeding up as
expected.
C) The
universe is neither expanding nor contracting.
D) The
expansion rate of the universe is speeding up, rather than slowing down as
expected.
-----------
301. The primary reason for making telescopes very
large is
A) to
magnify greatly.
B) to
reduce the seeing effects of the atmosphere.
C) to
make sharp images.
D) to
gather as much light as possible.
E) show
colors correctly.
-----------
302. The term ``cosmological constant'' refers to
A) the
force of attraction that pulls together any two objects having mass.
B) the
average density of matter in the universe.
C) the
constant average temperature of the Cosmic Microwave Background.
D) a
mysterious repulsive force that pushes apart everything in the universe.
E) the
constant that appears in Hubble's Law.
-----------
303. Which of the following lists orders the
regions of the
electromagnetic
spectrum from longest wavelength to
shortest
wavelength?
A)
gamma-ray, x-ray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, radio.
B)
gamma-ray, x-ray, radio, ultraviolet, visible, infrared.
C)
infrared, visible, radio, ultraviolet, x-ray, gamma-ray.
D)
radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-ray, gamma-ray.
E)
x-ray, radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, gamma-ray.
-----------
304. Saturn's rings are believed to be composed of
A)
frozen hydrogen.
B) a
liquid disk.
C)
recycled Coca Cola cans... that's what they do with them.
D) a
solid disk of frozen methane.
E)
small bodies of rock and ice.
-----------
305. Roemer was able to estimate the velocity of
light by
A)
timing eclipses of Jupiter's satellites.
B)
timing eclipses of the Sun.
C)
timing eclipses of the Moon.
-----------
306. Which has never had volcanic activity?
A) Io
B)
Venus
C) The
Moon
D) They
have all had volcanic activity.
E) Mars
-----------
307. It takes light roughly _____ to go from the
Sun to the
A) 2
hours
B) 1
second
C) 8
minutes
D) 1
year
E) 30
seconds
-----------
308. Which has the highest surface temperature?
A)
Mercury
B) The
Moon
C)
Earth
D) Mars
E)
Venus
-----------
309. When a wave passes through a narrow opening,
the wave
This is called
A)
interference.
B)
reflection.
C)
diffraction.
D)
refraction.
E)
dispersion.
-----------
310. One side of the Moon always faces the Earth
because the
A)
revolution rate about the Earth equals the rotation rate.
B) rotation
rate about the Sun equals the revolution rate.
C)
Earth always has the same side facing the Moon.
D) Moon
does not spin on its axis.
-----------
311. The phenomenon of refraction is the ____ of a
light beam as
it
passes slantwise from a medium of one density into a
A)
weakening
B)
bending
C)
reflecting
D)
dispersion
-----------
312. Which planet is known to have rings around
it?
A) Pluto
B) Uranus
C) Mars
D) Mercury
E)
Venus
-----------
313. The higher the frequency of light
A) the
shorter its wavelength.
B) the
greater its velocity in a vacuum.
C) the
redder it will be.
D) the
longer its wavelength.
-----------
314. Which has the smallest diameter?
A)
Venus
B) Mars
C)
Mercury
D) The
Earth's Moon
E)
Earth
-----------
315. The meteoroid which gives rise to an average
naked-eye
meteor
is about the size of
A) Shaquille O'Neal
B) a
grain of salt.
C) a
molecule.
D) a
basketball.
-----------
316. What is one thing wrong with the theory that
the Moon was formed far away in the Solar System and then captured into its
orbit around the Earth?
A) This
does not explain teh craters on the Moon..
B) The
Moon goes around in its orbit in the opposite direction of the earth's spin
(retrograde orbit).
C) We
don't know how the Moon could have slowed down to get into orbit.
D) The
Moon's composition is entirely unrelated to the composition of the Earth.
E) This
is actually the accepted theory... there is nothing wrong with it.
-----------
317. One advantage of a reflecting telescope
compared to a
refracting
telescope is that the reflecting telescope
A) more
easily focuses all wavelengths at the same place.
B) can
see the far side of the Moon in daytime.
C) can
be used only at prime focus.
D) doesn't
need cleaning as often.
-----------
318. Which of the following is a true statement?
A)
Mercury has a lower average density than Uranus.
B)
Saturn is the most massive planet.
C) 50\%
of the mass of the solar system is contained in the planets.
D) None
of the other statements are true.
E) Four
of the planets have rings.
-----------
319. Isaac Newton discovered that sunlight
A)
behaves like waves.
B) is
only a dream at MSU.
C)
causes skin cancer.
D) is
made up of all the colors of the rainbow.
E)
causes interference.
-----------
320. The inner and outer Galilean moons differ, in
that
A) the
inner moons have more ice.
B) the
inner moons have more geological activity.
C) the
inner moons have more impact craters.
D) the
inner moons have fewer volcanoes.
-----------
321. Isaac Newton invented
A) the
prism.
B)
fig-filled cookies.
C) the
reflecting telescope.
D) the
refracting telescope.
-----------
322. Which of the following is false? The
atmosphere of Jupiter
A)
circulates at different speeds at different latitudes.
B)
contains a storm larger than the Earth.
C) has
had a space probe parachuted into it.
D) is
made up primarily of hydrogen and helium.
E) is
strikingly similar to the Earth's atmosphere .
-----------
323. The electrical charges on the proton and
electron are
A) of
equal strength but opposite sign.
B)
respectively, negative and positive.
C) both
positive.
D) of
unequal strength but same sign.
-----------
324. How big is Mars compared to other planets?
A) Half
the diameter of Earth.
B)
Nearly as large as Saturn.
C) Mars
is the smallest planet.
D) Four
times larger diameter than Earth.
E)
Twice the diameter of Venus.
-----------
325. Molecules are formed when two or more atoms
A)
share electrons.
B)
share nuclei.
C)
exchange nuclei.
-----------
326. Which is the 2nd planet out from the sun?
A)
Jupiter
B)
Saturn
C)
Earth
D)
Venus
E) Mars
-----------
327. The particles found in the nucleus of an atom
are
A)
protons and neutrons.
B)
electrons and neutrons.
C)
electrons and protons.
D)
electrons, neutrons and protons.
-----------
328. What is the largest moon in the solar system?
A)
Titan
B) Phobos (the larger moon of Mars)
C)
Earth's Moon
D)
Ganymede
E) Charon
-----------
329. Which force holds people together?
A) weak
nuclear
B)
strong nuclear
C)
electromagnetic
D)
gravity
-----------
330. What is a basic distinction between most
asteroids and most comets?
A) The
oldest comets are older than the oldest asteroids.
B) Only
comets collide with the Earth.
C) The
oldest asteroids are older than the oldest comets.
D) Only
asteroids collide with the Earth.
E) They
come from different parts of the Solar System.
-----------
331. An atom can absorb light if the energy of the
light
A) is
less than that of a proton.
B)
equals the energy difference between electron orbits.
C)
moves an electron to a lower orbit.
D)
exceeds the energy difference between electron orbits.
E) is
less than that of an electron.
-----------
332. Kepler's laws of
motion imply that comets with highly elliptical orbits will
A)
spend most of their time at great distances from the Sun.
B) be
confined to the plane of the ecliptic.
C)
travel with a uniform velocity.
D)
spend most of their time near the Sun.
-----------
333. If you made a movie of an atom absorbing
light, and played
the
movie backwards, it would show an atom
A)
violating the laws of physics.
B)
emitting light.
C) recombining.
D)
absorbing light.
E)
being ionized.
-----------
334. If two planets have the same diameters, but
different mean densities, what does that tell us?
A) They
are made up of different mixes of the chemical elements.
B) That
the one with higher mean density must have a larger core.
C)
Their overall composition may be the same, but the elements have settled
out (differentiated) differently inside.
D) They
must have different core temperatures.
E) That
they must have different surface temperatures.
-----------
335. When an atom emits a photon in a given
spectral line, the
energy
of the photon is determined by
A)
whether the electrons move to a smaller or larger orbit.
B) the
energy lost by the electron changing orbits.
C) the
speed of the atom across the line of sight.
D) the
distance from the atom to the observer.
E) the
temperature of the atom.
-----------
336. Which has the highest level of oxygen in its
atmosphere?
A)
Venus
B)
Earth
C) Mars
D)
Titan
E)
Earth's Moon
-----------
337. The positions of the spectrum lines emitted
by an element
are
primarily influences by
A) the
number of neutrons in the nucleus.
B) the
number of isotopes present.
C) the
mass of the nucleus.
D) the
number of electrons orbiting the atom.
-----------
338. Which planet's moons are currently being
explored by the Galileo probe?
A)
Venus
B)
Saturn
C)
Jupiter
D)
E)
Pluto
-----------
339. If an electron is completely detached from an
atom
A) the
atom is ionized.
B) the
atom is an isotope.
C) the
atom is at absolute zero.
D) the
atom is in its ground state.
-----------
340. An important cause of the slowing down of the
Earth's rotation is the
A) pull
of the Moon on the Earth's equatorial bulge.
B) pull
of the Earth's equitorial bulge on the Moon.
C) pull
of the Moon on the Earth's magnetic field.
D)
gravitational increase in the size of the Earth's orbit.
E)
tides caused by the gravity of the Moon.
-----------
341. Ions are atoms with
A) more
electrons than protons.
B)
fewer electrons than protons.
C) no
electrons.
D) a
different number of electrons than protons.
-----------
342. To the best of our present knowledge, the
composition of Pluto is most similar to
A) Io.
B)
Mars.
C) the
Earth's Moon.
D)
Triton.
E)
Neptune.
-----------
343. Radial velocity is the speed
A) away
from the center of a circle.
B) of
radio waves.
C)
toward or away from the observer.
D) None
of the other answers are correct.
E) of
the rim of a wheel.
-----------
344. The observation that the surface of Venus is
significantly hotter than the Earth's can be explained
A)
completely by the fact that Venus is closer to the Sun.
B) by
the fact that Venus has no Moon to draw off heat.
C) by the
fact that Venus rotates very slowly.
D)
mostly by the greenhouse effect of Venus' atmosphere.
-----------
345. The spectral lines of a star are observed to
be shifted
Therefore
A) the
star is very hot.
B) the
star is approaching us.
C) the
star is receding from us.
D) the
star is rather cool.
-----------
346. There are large straight cracks in the icy
covering of the moon Europa. These are thought to be
due to
A) the
slow expansion of Europa due to its hot interior.
B) the
fact that the ice sits over an underlying ocean of water.
C) none
of the other answers is correct.
D) the
gradual contraction of Europa due to differentiation
in its interior.
E) long
cracks spreading out from the many impact craters on the surface.
-----------
347. An absorption-line spectrum is formed by
A) a
hot gas in front of a cool dense source of radiation.
B) a
glowing metal.
C) None
of the other answers.
D) a
cool gas between the observer and a hot dense body.
E) a
glowing gas at constant temperature.
-----------
348. Which of the following was NOT accomplished
by the Apollo astronauts?
A)
Brought back material from which chemical composition of lunar surface
could be determined.
B) Set
up seismographs which studied the lunar interior.
C)
Brought back rock samples for which ages could be measured.
D)
Landed in several different locations on Moon.
E)
Found evidence of ancient life forms.
-----------
349. Temperature is related to the _____ of atoms.
A)
speed
B) mass
C)
atomic weight
D)
densities
E) size
-----------
350. We cannot see the entire surface of the Moon
from Earth because
A) the
Moon does not rotate.
B) the
Moon's axis always point's toward the Earth.
C) one
side of the Moon is dark.
D) the
Moon rotates once for every orbit around the Earth.
E)
there is nothing behind the Moon.
-----------
351. Stefans' law states
that the amount of energy radiated by
each
square centimeter of a body is
A)
proportional to the fourth power of its temperature.
B) proportional to the cube of the temperature.
C)
proportional to its temperature.
D)
proportional to the cube of the wavelength.
E)
proportional to its distance.
-----------
352. Which planet does $not$ have rings around it?
A)
Venus
B)
Saturn
C)
Neptune
D)
Uranus
E)
Jupiter
-----------
353. As a glowing black body gets hotter, what
happens to its
color
and what happens to the brightness of the red light
it
emits?
A)
color gets more red; all colors get stronger.
B)
color gets more blue; all colors don't change.
C)
color gets more red; all colors get weaker.
D)
color gets more blue; all colors get weaker.
E)
color gets more blue; all colors get stronger.
-----------
354. Which has the largest diameter?
A)
Mercury
B) Mars
C) The
Earth's Moon
D)
Pluto
E)
Venus
-----------
355. The luminosity of a star
A)
depends upon the distance to the star.
B)
usually is greater for stars with large proper motion.
C) is
the rate a which it radiates energy.
D) was
first introduced by Hipparchus.
E) can
be measured only if the star is ten parsecs away.
-----------
356. What is wrong with the theory that the Moon
was born as a sister planet right next to the Earth?
A) The
Moon goes around in its orbit in the opposite direction of the earth's spin
(retrograde orbit).
B) The
Moon should have fallen into the Earth.
C) The
Moon does not have the exact same composition as the Earth.
D) This
is actually the accepted theory... there is nothing wrong with it.
E)
There was not enough primordial material in our part of the Solar Syestem to form more than just the Earth.
-----------
357. The most important reason for measuring
distances to stars
is to
A) see
how many stars could influence the Oort comet cloud.
B) convert
radial velocity to space velocity.
C) find
spectral types for stars.
D)
determine how luminous they are.
E) find
out what direction clusters of stars are moving in.
-----------
358. Which of the following is a true statement?
A) 50\%
of the mass of the solar system is contained in the planets.
B) None
of the other statements are true.
C)
Uranus is the most massive planet.
D)
Neptune is sometimes the 9th planet out from the Sun.
E)
Neptune has a higher average density than Venus.
-----------
359. If two stars have the same luminosity, the
cooler star will
have
a
A)
larger diameter.
B)
fainter apparent magnitude.
C)
greater distance.
D)
larger Doppler shift.
E)
bluer color.
-----------
360. The inner and outer Galilean moons differ, in
that
A) the
outer moons have more ice.
B) the
outer moons have more volcanoes.
C) the
outer moons have more geological activity.
D) the
outer moons have fewer impact craters.
-----------
361. The redder a star is,
A) the
lower its surface temperature.
B) the
larger it must be.
C) the
denser it is.
D) the
smaller it must be.
E) the
younger it is.
-----------
362. Which of the following is false? The
atmosphere of Jupiter
A) has
had a space probe parachuted into it.
B) is
made up primarily of hydrogen and helium.
C)
contains a storms that is as big as Earth.
D) sits
on top of a solid rocky surface .
E)
circulates at different speeds at different latitudes.
-----------
363. The main reason the pattern of stellar spectral
lines
changes
from one spectral type to the next is the
A)
composition changes.
B)
absolute magnitude changes.
C)
temperature changes.
D)
diameter changes.
-----------
364. How big is Mercury compared to other planets?
A)
Nearly as large as Saturn..
B)
Twice the diameter of Venus.
C) Four
times larger diameter than Earth.
D)
Smaller than Mars.
E)
Mercury is the smallest planet.
-----------
365. The letters classifying the spectral sequence
of stars from
blue
to red (high temperature to low temperature) is
A) B A F K G M O.
B) M K G F A B O.
C) O B A F K M G.
D) O B A F G K M.
E) M G K F A O B.
-----------
366. Which is the 4th planet out from the Sun?
A)
Venus
B)
Earth
C)
Saturn
D) Mars
E)
Jupiter
-----------
367. The most abundant chemical elements in a
star's photosphere
will
almost always give the strongest spectral lines in the
A)
False
B) True
-----------
368. Which is smallest in diameter?
A)
Earth's Moon
B)
Titan
C)
Ganymede
D)
Mercury
E)
Pluto
-----------
369. As we look at the stars hotter than spectral
class A, the
higher
the temperature, the weaker the hydrogen spectral
Why?
A)
Strong helium lines cover the hydrogen lines.
B) The
hydrogen is used to form molecules.
C) Very
hot stars have converted hydrogen to helium.
D) Too
much of the hydrogen is ionized.
E) All
hydrogen atoms have electrons in the first orbit.
-----------
370. What is a basic distinction between asteroids
and comets?
A) Only
asteroids collide with the Earth.
B)
Their compositions are very different.
C) The
oldest comets are older than the oldest asteroids.
D) The
oldest asteroids are older than the oldest comets.
E) Only
comets collide with the Earth.
-----------
371. If a star has very weak hydrogen lines but
strong lines of
molecules
in its spectrum, it should be a
A)
fairly cool star.
B) be
farther away.
C) be
larger.
D) have
bluer color.
E) have
fainter absolute magnitude.
-----------
372. Which statement best describes a typical
comet during the vast MAJORITY of its lifetime?
A) It
has two huge tails, one made of dust and the other of ions.
B) It
is in an orbit roughly like the orbits of the terrestrial planets.
C) It
has an expanded shell of hydrogen gas, in some cases larger than the sun.
D) It
is a small ball of icy materials, a few km across.
E) It
is closer to the Sun than the orbit of Mars.
-----------
373. If we compare the spectra of two stars of the
same
temperature
but much different luminosities, the star with
the
higher luminosity is likely to have
A)
spectral lines that are easier to see.
B)
stronger lines from molecules.
C) more
splitting of its lines by its magnetic field.
D)
lines more broadened by its rotation.
E)
narrower (less fuzzy) lines.
-----------
374. Comets like Halley's Comet have periods of
just a few 10's of years, while another type of comets has periods of several
thousand years. What does this immediately tell us?
A) The
short period comets like Halley's come from the Oort
Cloud.
B) The
two groups of comets have very different ages.
C) The
two groups of comets have very different compositions.
D) One
type of comet travels very much farther out in the solar system than does the
other type.
E) The
periods of comets gets longer and longer as they repeatedly pass through the
inner solar system.
-----------
375. The nearest star other than the Sun is
roughly _____ light
A) 1
B) 60
C)
100,000
D) 4
E)
2,000,000
-----------
376. The difference in density between the giant
planets and the terrestial planets tells us that
A) they
were formed in different parts of the solar system
B)
their ages are different.
C) the
giant planets have gaseous atmospheres.
D) the
giant planets are bigger.
E)
their compositions are different.
-----------
377. The greater the distance of a star, the
smaller is its
A)
rotation.
B)
temperature.
C)
period.
D)
luminosity.
E)
parallax.
-----------
378. The spacecraft that have visited the outer
planets have all flown close to inner planets (Venus, for example), often more
than once, as part of their journeys. What was the primary reason for this?
A) The
outer planets happened to have been on the far side of the Sun, so the shortest
route passes the inner planets.
B) To
chalk up lots of extra frequent flyer miles.
C) To
study the nature of the inner planets.
D) To
pick up extra energy through their gravitational encounter with the inner
planet.
E) To
refuel from the material in the atmosphere of Venus.
-----------
379. Parallax can be used to measure distances as
large as _____
A) 60
B) 200
C)
100,000
D) 1
E) 4
-----------
380. What is the main reason that we know so much
less about Pluto than about any of the other planets?
A) It
has not been visited by a space probe.
B) It
is smaller.
C) It
is less interesting.
D) It
is always on the far side of the Sun from the Earth.
E) It
was discovered more recently than the other planets.
-----------
381. The apparent change in position of the
foreground star
against
the background stars in photographs taken at times
seperated by one year would include or show only
A)
parallax and proper motion
B)
proper motion
C)
parallax
D)
secular motion
-----------
382. Gravitational resonances are thought to cause
the gaps in the rings of Saturn, the gaps in the asteroid belt, and the fact
that Mercury's rotation period is 2/3 of its orbital period. What is a basic
feature of this process?
A) Two
bodies must physically collide with each other.
B)
Quantum mechanics says that certain orbits are forbidden.
C) A
body with with a strong gravitational field is able
to pull repeatedly on a smaller body at the same point in its orbit with the
same force, time after time.
D) The
strength of the force of gravity between two stationary objects continuously
resonates like a big spring.
-----------
383. The most simply constructed atom, consisting
of a single
proton
plus one orbiting electron, is
A)
neutral helium
B)
doubly ionized helium
C) ionized hydrogen
D) neutral hydrogen
-----------
384. What has caused the gaps in the rings of
Saturn?
A) The
material at those locations formed into the large moons of Saturn.
B)
Large moons have crashed through the rings at those positions, and the
resulting holes have smeared out into rings.
C) The
material at these positions is very dark and absorbing, as compared to teh highly reflective material elsewhere in the rings.
D)
Roche's law says that material cannot exist at the positions of the gaps.
E)
Gravitational encounters between the ring material and small moons in
orbit around Saturn.
-----------
385. The factor which distinguishes one element
from another is
A) the
number of neutrons
B) the
size
C) the
number of ions
D) the
number of protons
-----------
386. In the context of the formation of planets,
what is meant by ``Differentiation''?
A) It
is a hateful mathematical technique invented by Isaac Newton.
B)
Chemical reactions within the forming planet change the composition of
some parts of its interior.
C)
Centrifugal force causes the denser material to move to the outer parts
of the planet.
D) When
the planet is molten, the heavier material sinks to the center.
E) The
giant planets can easily be differentiated from the terrestrial planets because
of their larger sizes.
-----------
387. The nucleus of atoms other than hydrogen are
composed of
A)
protons and neutrinos
B)
electrons and neutrons
C)
protons, neutrons and electrons
D)
protons and electrons
E) protons
and neutrons
-----------
388. What is the general distribution of the
planets in their orbits about the Sun?
A) All
of the planets are always on the same side of the Sun.
B) The
orbits go off in all directions (inclinations).
C) The
larger plaents are closer to the Sun.
D) All
orbits except one lie in a thin disk.
E) The
larger planets move faster in their orbits.
-----------
389. What is necessary for the strong nuclear
force to hold
together
two protons?
A) The
protons must have a low temperature.
B) The
protons must be very close together.
C) The
protons must become neutrons.
D) The
protons must have opposite charge.
E) The
protons must be moving slowly.
-----------
390. Roughly what percentage of the mass of the
Solar System is contained in the Sun?
A)
exactly all of it; i.e. 100\%
B)
4-5\%
C)
45-50\%
D)
99.8-99.9\%
E)
9.8-9.9\%
-----------
391. The greatest proportion of the mass of the
atom is found
A) in
the protons.
B) in
the nucleus.
C) in
the electrons.
D) in
the neutrons.
-----------
392. What is the approximate measured age of the
solar system and of the Earth?
A) 4.5
million years (4,500,000 years)
B) 4.5
trillion years (4,500,000,000,000 years)
C) 2002
years
D) 4.5
billion years (4,500,000,000 years)
E) 4.5
thousand years (4,500 years)
-----------
393. If we compare two stars of different
temperature, the
hotter
star
A)
always looks brighter as seen from Earth.
B)
always has higher luminosity.
C)
always emits more energy from each unit area
D)
always will be larger.
-----------
394. The process of 'Differentiation' explains
A) why
Jupiter is composed mostly of gas while Earth is composed mostly of rock.
B) why
the Earth is not at the center of the Solar System.
C) why
Earth's density is constant at all depths.
D) why
the material at the cores of the planets is denser than the material in their
outer layers.
E) why
most of the Solar System's material is in the Sun.
-----------
395. We don't see spectral lines from an ordinary
incandescent
light
bulb because the glowing filament
A)
would only give bright (emission) lines.
B) None
of the other answers listed here is correct.
C)
would only give dark (absorption) lines.
D) has
its atoms so close together their structures are
E) is
made from atoms which never give spectral lines.
-----------
396. What does the number of impact craters per
unit area tell us about the surface of a planet or moon?
A) The
size of the moon or planet.
B) The
numbers of years that have passed since the last resurfacing by a lava flow.
C) The
density of the material that makes up the surface.
D)
Whether the planet is located near plane of the solar system.
E)
Whether the surface is in the shadow of a planet or receives the full
force of the impacts.
-----------
397. A black body emits an amount of radiation
from each unit
area
of its surface that is proportional to
A) the
inverse square of its absolute temperature.
B) the
fourth power of the wavelength.
C) the
fourth power of its absolute temperature.
D) the
cube of its temperature divided by the mass.
-----------
398. Radioactive decay allows us to determine
A) how
long it has been since a given impact crater was formed.
B) how
long ago the Earth's atmosphere formed.
C)
whether or not a rock originally contained Uranium
D) how
long ago certain rock samples were first formed.
E) the
masses of the planets
-----------
399. If we compare several objects at the same
temperature, all
glowing
because they are hot, the one that emits the most
light
from each unit area of surface will also
A)
appear reddest.
B)
absorb light hitting it most efficiently.
C)
appear faintest.
D)
appear bluest.
-----------
400. The planets all go around the Sun in the same
direction, and most also spin on their axis in that same sense. This is due to
A) the
conservation of energy.
B) the
fact that light always travels at the same speed.
C) no
special reason... the planets just happen to do that.
D) Kepler's 3rd law (P$^2$ = a$^3$).
E) the
conservation of angular momentum.
-----------
401. Matter has a dual wave/particle nature just
as light does.
A) True
B)
False
-----------
402. What is the history of the rate of crater
formation (i.e the rate of bombardment by asteroids,
meteorites, etc) in our part of the solar system?
A)
Intense bombardment during the first half billion years, followed by
bombardment at a low, steady rate.
B)
Initially a very low rate of bombardment, but then a steady increase up
through the present time.
C)
Occasional periods of intense bombardment, with long lulls in between.
D) All
of the bombardment happened right at the start, after which all of the
asteroids, meteorites, etc had been swept up on planetary surfaces.
E) Bombardment
at a steady rate ever since the solar system formed, which enables us to
calculate the ages of cratered surfaces.
-----------
403. An electron occupies only certain orbits in
an atom because
of
its
A)
snobbery
B) age
C)
negative charge
D)
particle nature
E) wave
nature
-----------
404. What theory is the current favorite for the
origin of the Moon?
A) It
was formed in an orbit much closer to the Sun, and then captured by the Earth's
gravitational field.
B) It
was expelled from the Earth by centrifugal force, at a time when the Earth was
molten and rotating very rapidly.
C) It
and the Earth formed side-by-side at the same time.
D) It
formed from the remnants of a collision between Earth and another large body.
E) It
was formed far out in the solar system, and then captured by Earth's
gravitational field.
-----------
405. To find the total mass of a visual binary, we
need to first
find
its
A)
apparent magnitude and distance from Earth.
B) true
orbit and proper motion.
C) space velocity and apparent orbit.
D)
Doppler shift and proper motion.
E)
distance from Earth and the angular size and period of
-----------
406. Why are meteorites so important?
A) They
can be analyzed to tell us about the initial chemical composition of the solar
system.
B) They
come in on elongated orbits reaching to the edge of the Sun's sphere of
gravitational influence.
C) They
may have been responsible for depositing much of the atmosphere onto the
Earth..
D) The
tell us the age of the solar system.
E) Two
of the other answers are correct.
-----------
407. While observing the spectrum of a distant
star, an
astronomer
notices that every few hours each spectral line
It can be concluded
A) the
astronomer has periodic fuzzy vision.
B) the
star is moving toward the Earth.
C) the
star is pulsating in size.
D)
there are really two stars that orbit each other.
-----------
408. Which is the best description of the process
of formation of the planets?
A)
Condensed as very large bodies in the first step, which subsequent
meteor impacts then broke up into today's planets.
B)
Condensed in nearly their finished form directly from the solar nebula,
in one step.
C)
Nothing is known about how the planets formed.
D)
Venus emerged fully formed from a seashell.
E) The iitial gas condensed into small bodies called plantesimals, which then coalesced into larger and larger
bodies.
-----------
409. If a stellar spectrum has strong hydrogen
lines and strong
molecular
lines, then probably the star
A) is
really a double star.
B) is
seen behind a dust cloud.
C) has
an unusual chemical composition.
D) is
hotter than the Sun, but not extremely hot.
E) is
quite cool.
-----------
410. What difference in the formation process
caused the giant planets to be so different from the terrestrial planets?
A) Ices
survived in the outer solar nebula, enabling larger protoplanets
to be built up, which had enough gravity to then capture the surrounding gas.
B) The
terrestrial planets are moons which have escaped from the giant planets.
C) The
heavy material sank to the center of the solar system, forming the terrestrial
planets, while only gas was left in the outer solar system.
D) The
Sun's tidal forces are less in the outer solar system, so larger bodies could
survive.
-----------
411. The study of binary stars is important
because it allows us
to
measure
A)
absolute magnitude of stars.
B)
distances of stars.
C)
temperature of stars.
D)
parallaxes and proper motions of stars.
E)
masses of stars.
-----------
412. Why doesn't the material in Saturn's inner
rings eventually clump together into just a few large moons?
A)
Because the Great Red Spot is a storm larger than the diameter of the
Earth.
B) It
will eventually happen, but it is a very slow process and there hasn't been
enough time yet since Saturn was formed.
C)
Because the difference in the orbital velocities at different distances
from Saturn tears apart any bodies that try to form.
D)
Because the rings are so thin... only one km thick by our best estimate.
-----------
413. The mass-luminosity law for main sequence
stars is based on
A) less
than one hundred
B)
about ten
C)
several thousand
-----------
414. In the Runaway Greenhouse Effect, why is it
that light from the Sun can heat a planet, but the planet cannot cool off by
re-radiating that energy back out to space?
A) The
planet acts as a black body that only absorbs light; it does not emit light.
B) The
sunlight directly heats the cloud layer, which then conducts the heat to the
surface.
C) The
surface heats up from volcanic activity.
D)
Visible light from the Sun can pass through the CO$_2$ in the atmosphere
and heat the surface, but the infrared light re-radiated by the planet is
trapped by the CO$_2$.
-----------
415. The most massive stars observed are about
A) 8000
times the mass of the Sun.
B) 8
times the mass of the Sun.
C) 800
times the mass of the Sun.
D) 80
times the mass of the Sun.
E)
80,000 times the mass of the Sun.
-----------
416. Which best describes the interior structure
of the giant planets?
A)
Jupiter and Saturn have rocky cores, but Uranus and Neptune don't.
B) A
thick methane atmosphere over a central core of metallic hydrogen.
C)
Nothing is known about the interior structure of these planets.
D) A
layer of hydrogen and helium over a core made of ice and rock.
E)
Hydrogen and helium gas that gets denser and denser all the way to the
center.
-----------
417. In an H-R diagram, one plots a star's mass
against its
A)
False
B) True
-----------
418. Why are there are two high tides per day on
Earth?
A)
Because the Earth goes around the Moon twice per day.
B)
Because the Moon goes around the Earth twice per day.
C)
Because the Moon's gravitational pull sets up a wave that is sometimes
on one side of the Earth and sometimes on the other side.
D) The
Moon's gravity pulls most strongly on water on the near side of Earth, least
strongly on water on the far side, and a medium amount on the solid bulk of the
Earth.
E)
Trick question... there is only one high tide per day, and it occurs on
the side nearest the Moon.
-----------
419. The main sequence is a sequence of surface
temperature.
What
other physical property of a star varies continuously
along
the main sequence?
A) age
B)
rotational velocity
C)
chemical composition
D) mass
E)
extent of the corona
-----------
420. The Moon has more maria
on its near side than on its far side. This is because:
A) The
volcanic activity on the far side occured earlier in
the Moon's history and has subsequently been covered by more craters than on
the near side.
B)
Greater volcanic activity on the far side has deposited a thicker layer
of material.
C) The
Earth's gravitational pull causes more large bodies to strike the near side of
the Moon than the far side.
D) The
Earth's tidal pull has caused the Moon to have a thinner crust on the near
side.
E) It's
a random coincidence.
-----------
421. The most luminous stars on the main sequence are
the
A) most
massive.
B)
least dense of all stars
C)
longest lived.
D)
coolest.
E)
oldest.
-----------
422. What is the source of the best evidence
favoring the past existence of life on Mars?
A)
Analysis of samples of ice from Antarctica.
B)
Observations from Earth of canal-like structures.
C) The
careful chemical analysis made by the Viking landers.
D)
Rocks blown off the Martian surface by meteorite impacts.
E)
Rocks brought back by the Apollo astronauts.
-----------
423. The largest stars are found in which corner
of the H-R
diagram?
A)
lower right
B)
lower left
C)
upper left
D)
center
E)
upper right
-----------
424. How do the four largest moons of Jupiter
compare to Earth's Moon?
A) They
all have compositions similar to that of Earth's Moon.
B) They
are all made of ice, unlike Earth's Moon.
C) They
are all geologically dead, like Earth's Moon.
D) They
all have sizes similar to that of Earth's Moon.
E) They
are all far less massive than Earth's Moon.
-----------
425. Where would you look on an H-R diagram to
find a very small
star
with very high density?
A)
below the main sequence
B) near
the lower end of the main sequence
C) near
the center of the main sequence
D) near
the upper end of the main sequence
E)
above the main sequence
-----------
426. Which has clouds made of sulfuric acid?
A)
Earth's Moon
B)
Venus
C) Los
Angeles
D)
Mercury
E) Mars
-----------
427. We can obtain the distance to a cluster of
stars by
comparing
an H-R diagram for nearby stars with the cluster's
A)
luminosity-proper motion diagram
B)
spectral type-color diagram
C)
proper motion-tangential velocity diagram
D)
color-luminosity diagram
E)
color-brightness diagram
-----------
428. Where in the Solar System do we find most of
the asteroids?
A)
Crossing the orbit of Earth.
B) On
highly elliptical orbits reaching out to the very edge of the Solar System.
C)
Slightly beyond the orbit of Pluto
D)
Between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
E)
Inside the orbit of Mercury.
-----------
429. The stars which lie closest to the Sun in
space are mostly
A)
hotter than the Sun.
B)
younger than the Sun.
C)
larger than the Sun.
D) much
more luminous than the Sun.
E) less
luminous and cooler than the Sun.
-----------
430. The material which is most dominant in
Jupiter and Saturn is
A)
ammonia
B)
hydrogen
C)
helium
D)
oxygen
E)
carbon
-----------
431. The most abundant element in the Sun is
A)
carbon
B)
hydrogen
C)
helium
D)
oxygen
-----------
432. Which part of the Moon is oldest?
A) the rilles.
B) the maria and the highlands are the same age.
C) the
lowlands.
D) the maria.
E) the
highlands.
-----------
433. Studying the spectrum of the Sun can give no
information
about
its
A) None
of the other answers is correct.
B)
chemical composition.
C)
magnetic fields.
D)
speed toward or away from the Earth.
E)
distance.
-----------
434. Mars has
A) ice
caps of frozen carbon dioxide and water.
B) a
very high surface temperature.
C)
rivers carrying water from the poles.
D)
abundant vegetation.
E) a
dense atmosphere.
-----------
435. With knowledge of a star's brightness and
luminosity, one
can
compute its
A)
radius
B)
larger Doppler shift
C)
cooler surface temperature
D)
temperature
E)
distance
-----------
436. Jupiter's atmosphere is mostly hydrogen and
A)
helium
B)
sulfuric acid
C) neon
D)
ammonia
E)
water
-----------
437. We see absorption lines from different atomic
elements in
the
spectra of stars with different surface temperatures
because
A)
excitation and ionization depends on temperature.
B) a
star's color depends on temperature.
C)
composition of stellar surfaces depends on temperature.
D)
potential energy is converted to kinetic energy.
-----------
438. The largest volcano in the solar system is
found on
A) Mars
B) Phobos
C)
Earth
D)
Mercury
E)
Venus
-----------
439. The letters classifying the spectral sequence
of stars from
blue
to red (low temperature to high temperature) is
A) M G K F A O B
B) O B A F G K M
C) M K G F A B O
D) B A F K G M O
E) O B A F K M G
-----------
440. Comets like Halley's Comet have periods of
just a few 10's of years, while another type of comets has periods of several
thousand years. What does this immediately tell us?
A) One
type of comet travels very much farther out in the solar system than does the
other type.
B) The
two groups of comets have very different ages.
C) The
short period comets like Halley's come from the Oort
Cloud.
D) The
periods of comets gets longer and longer as they repeatedly pass through the
inner solar system.
E) The
two groups of comets have very different compositions.
-----------
441. The relative strengths of absorption lines in
stellar
spectra,
considered from cool type to hot (late) type,
would
show maxima in which of the following sequences?
A)
molecules, hydroge, ionized helium.
B)
hydrogen, neutral helium, ionized helium.
C)
ionized helium, hydrogen, molecules.
D) neutral metals, hydrogen, helium.
E)
metals, molecules, helium.
-----------
442. There is a progressive increase in the level
of geological activity in Jupiter's four largest moons:
A) as
you move from the moons closest to Jupiter to the ones farther out, because the
tidal forces from Jupiter become stronger at larger distances.
B) as
you move from the moons farther from Jupiter to the ones closer to Jupiter,
because of the differences in composition of the moons.
C) as
you move from the smallest of these moons to the largest, because larger moons
have greater interior pressures.
D) as
you move from the moons farther from Jupiter to the ones closer to Jupiter,
because of the increasingly stronger tidal effects from Jupiter.
E) as
you move from the moons closer to Jupiter to the ones farther out, because of
the differences in composition of the moons.
-----------
443. If one star has strong lines of molecules and
the second
star
has no molecular lines but strong hydrogen lines, then
the
first star must
A) be
cooler.
B) have
a fainter absolute magnitude.
C) have
a bluer color.
D) be
farther away.
E) be
larger.
-----------
444. Which giant planet does not have much helium
in its atmosphere, probably because it has fallen toward the center of the
planet?
A)
Saturn
B)
Neptune
C)
Uranus
D)
Jupiter
E) None
of the otehr answers is correct.
-----------
445. Compared to a giant star of the same spectral
class, a main
sequence
star will have
A)
higher luminosity.
B)
broader (or fuzzier) spectral lines.
C)
brighter apparent magnitude.
D)
lower density.
E)
cooler temperature.
-----------
446. A planet is more likely to keep an atmosphere
from escaping into space if its upper atmosphere is
A) hot
and the gravitational field is strong.
B) hot
and the atmosphere is made of hydrogen.
C) cold
and the gravitational field is weak.
D) hot
and the gravitational field is weak.
E) cold
and the gravitational field is strong.
-----------
447. If a star has a parallax of one-eighth of a
second of arc,
it is
at a distance of
A)
206,265 astronomical units.
B)
eight light years.
C)
one-eighth parsec.
D)
eight parsecs.
E)
one-eighth light years.
-----------
448. Most of the craters on the Moon
A) are
seen most easily at full Moon.
B) were
formed in the Moon's first billion years of existence
C)
occur in the younger parts of the Moon's surface.
D) were
predicted to exist by Aristotle.
E) were
created by volcanoes.
-----------
449. The greater the parallax of a star, the
smaller its
A)
space velocity
B)
absolute magnitude
C) temperature
D) distance
E) radial velocity
-----------
450. The surface of Mercury most closely resembles
A) the
surface of Venus.
B) the
surface of Jupiter.
C) the
Earth's surface.
D) the
Moon's surface.
E) the
surface of Europa.
-----------
451. To find the total mass of a binary star, we
must know the
size
of the orbit which we get from the angular size of the
orbit
and the binary star's
A)
Doppler shift
B) distance
C)
proper motion
D)
brightness
-----------
452. Which of the following has little or no
atmosphere?
A)
Earth
B)
Venus
C)
Jupiter
D) Mars
E)
Mercury
-----------
453. The type of binary star for which information
about the
diameters
of the components is derived is a(n)
A)
spectroscopic binary
B) astrometric binary
C)
multiple star
D)
visual binary
E)
eclipsing binary
-----------
454. The Great Red Spot on Jupiter is
A) the
top of a gigantic volcano.
B)
sulfurous clouds over the vertex of a solid obstacle.
C) a
violent cyclonic storm.
D)
reddish dust.
E) an
island floating in a sea of molecular gases.
-----------
455. If we observe a periodic change in the
wavelengths in a
star's
spectrum, probably the star is
A)
actually a planet.
B) very
hot.
C) a
member of a binary system.
D)
among the closest stars to the Sun.
E)
rotating rapidly.
-----------
456. One satellite known to possess a thick
atmosphere is
A) Callisto
B) Ganymede
C) Charon
D) The Earth's Moon
E)
Titan
-----------
457. Reliable masses have been measured for
A) all
of the nearer stars.
B) all
stars which are in binary systems.
C) most
faint stars.
D) only
about 100 stars.
E) most
bright stars.
-----------
458. A) The
Earth's Moon
B) Ganymede
C) Callisto
D) Titan
E) Charon
-----------
459. The Hertzsprung-Russell
diagram shows the relation between
A)
temperature and color
B) size
C)
luminosity
D)
apparent brightness and diameter
-----------
460. The two planets whose orbits cross (i.e. one
planet periodically gets closer to the Sun than the other planet) are
A)
Mercury and Venus
B)
Neptune and Pluto
C)
Venus and Earth
D) Mars
and Jupiter
E)
Uranus and Neptune
-----------
461. In an H-R diagram, a star's H is plotted
against its R.
A)
False
B) True
-----------
462. In general, the younger a region on the Moon,
the
A)
farther it is from Earth.
B) more
craters it has.
C)
fewer craters it has.
D)
farther it is from the center of the Moon.
E)
fewer cracks or rills it has.
-----------
463. In following the main sequence on the H-R
diagram in the
direction
of increasing temperature, one is also following
a
sequence of
A)
increasing percentage of hydrogen
B)
decreasing mass
C)
increasing age
D)
increasing mass
-----------
464. The locations of mountains and valleys on
Venus are best found by
A)
X-rays emitted by the surface.
B) the
strength of radio waves given off.
C)
landing vehicles on the surface to drive around.
D)
simple photographs from orbit around Venus.
E)
radar measurements.
-----------
465. A relationship between _____ and _____ holds
for main
A)
period, radius
B)
period, luminosity
C)
mass, period
D)
temperature, period
E)
mass, luminosity
-----------
466. On which planet have features been
photographed that look like erosion patterns from flowing water?
A) Uranus
B) Mercury
C) Venus
D) Mars
E)
Jupiter
-----------
467. Which of the following stars would be the
largest?
A) luminosity
of 1 unit, temperature of 3000 degrees
B)
luminosity of .1 units, temperature of 3000 degrees
C)
luminosity of 10 units, temperature of 6000 degrees
D)
luminosity of 10 units, temperature of 3000 degrees
E)
luminosity of 1 unit, temperature
of 6000 degrees
-----------
468. At the north pole of Mars, the polar cap that
lasts all summer is composed primarily of
A)
water ice
B) fine
particles of sand
C) frozen carbon dioxide
D) frozen nitrogen
E) a mixture of liquid and frozen water (slush)
-----------
469. The distances of the stars can be inferred
from a study of
their
A)
richness of spectrum.
B)
apparent brightness.
C)
velocities in the line of sight.
D) None
of the other answers is correct.
E)
spectrum and apparent brightness.
-----------
470. A) a
mixture of liquid and frozen water (slush)
B)
frozen nitrogen
C) fine
particles of sand
D)
frozen carbon dioxide
E)
water ice
-----------
471. If a color-brightness diagram of a cluster of
stars is
compared
to an H-R diagram of stars around us, we can use
the
comparison to find the cluster's
A)
metal content.
B)
size.
C)
mass.
D)
distance.
E)
space velocity.
-----------
472. Io, the inner Galilean satellite of Jupiter,
is apparently heated as a result of
A)
decay of radioactive elements.
B)
friction by tides caused by Jupiter.
C)
impacts of objects hitting its surface.
D) a
slow compression of the satellite.
E)
friction with Jupiter's outer atmosphere.
-----------
473. If we take a census of the 37 nearest stars,
we find that
the
Sun is
A)
about average with regard to luminosity.
B) one
of the most luminous.
C) one
of the least luminous.
-----------
474. An asteroid consists mostly of
A) dust
B) frozen gases
C) ice
D) hydrogen and helium
E) rock
-----------
475. The locations of all but a few of the stars
in the solar
"neighborhood"
on the H-R diagram are
A) in
the Supergiant Region.
B) in
the White Dwarf Region.
C) on
the main sequence.
D) in
the H-R Block.
-----------
476. The tail of a comet generally
A)
precedes the comet.
B)
points away from the Sun.
C)
follows the comet.
D)
points toward the Earth.
E)
points toward the Sun.
-----------
477. Cecelia Payne-Gaposhkin
studied spectra of stars of various
colors
and concluded not only that star spectra depended
primarily
on temperature but that the compositions of the
stars
A) are
virtually the same.
B) vary
greatly with temperature.
C) are
primarily of iron when cool and hydrogen when hot.
D)
cannot be measured.
-----------
478. If you were an astronaut on the dark side of
the Moon and your task was to count meteors, how many would you expect to see
in one hour?
A) none
B)
about a dozen
C)
about 100
D)
about the same as on Earth
E) many
more than on Earth
-----------
479. The age of the Sun is about
A) five
million years.
B) five
thousand years.
C) five
billion years.
D) five
trillion years.
-----------
480. At present, the most abundant gas in the
Earth's atmosphere is
A)
ozone
B)
CO$_2$
C)
oxygen
D)
nitrogen
E)
water vapor
-----------
481. The estimated age of the Sun leads one to
believe that the
solar
energy source is
A)
gravitational contraction.
B) uranium fission.
C) hydrogen fusion.
D) burning of coal.
-----------
482. Which has the highest surface temperature?
A)
Mercury
B) Mars
C) The
Moon
D)
Venus
E)
Earth
-----------
483. Northern Lights result from
A)
sunlight shining on the Earth's north polar cap.
B)
light from flares hitting the Earth's upper atmosphere.
C)
charged particles from the solar wind hitting the upper
D)
lightning discharges high in our atmosphere.
E) the
burning of hydrogen high in our atmosphere.
-----------
484. Most of the Earth's volcanoes are found in
what sorts of places?
A)
above isolated hot spots in the middle of the plates, such as the
Hawaiian island chain.
B)
national parks.
C) at
places where meteors have just hit.
D)
under water.
E)
zones where the tectonic plates are either crashing together or
spreading apart.
-----------
485. The following energy sources occur in the
core of the Sun
during
its pre-main sequence, main sequence, and red giant
stages
respectively:
A)
hydrogen fusion, helium fusion, carbon fusion.
B)
cosmic rays, gravitational contraction, hydrogen fusion.
C)
gravitational contraction, hydrogen fusion, helium
D)
helium fusion, hydrogen fusion, carbon fusion.
E)
hydrogen fusion, gravitational contraction, helium
-----------
486. What is thought to be a major cause of the
present global warming?
A) the
release of CO$_2$ as a result of human activity.
B) the
natural long-term increase in the energy output of the sun.
C) the
slow release of radioactive energy from the Earth's crust.
D) the
gradual heating of the Earth due to the slow contraction of its core
E) the
destruction of ozone over Antarctica, due to human pollution of the atmosphere.
-----------
487. Which type of light is used to observe young
stars being
born?
A)
visible
B) ultraviolet
C)
gamma-ray
D)
infrared
E)
radio
-----------
488. Which has an atmosphere consisting mostly of
CO$_2$?
A)
Earth
B)
Mercury
C) None
of the other answers is correct.
D) Mars
E) The
Moon
-----------
489. Stars are probably being born in regions rich
in
A) dust
and gas.
B) red
giants.
C)
globular clusters.
D)
heavy elements.
E)
planetary nebulae.
-----------
490. Which has retrograde rotation?
A) Mars
B) The
Moon
C)
Earth
D)
Venus
E)
Mercury
-----------
491. The order of the stages of evolution a star
like our Sun
goes
through is
A) red
giant, white dwarf, main sequence, proto-star.
B)
proto-star, white dwarf, main sequence, red giant.
C) red
giant, main sequence, proto-star, white dwarf.
D)
proto-star, red giant, main sequence, white dwarf.
E)
proto-star, main sequence, red giant, white dwarf.
-----------
492. Why does Mars have such a thin (low-density)
atmosphere.?
A)
Because Mars' low mass means that much of the atmosphere had escape
velocity from the planet.
B)
Because of the extremely high surface temperature of Mars.
C)
Because Mars' atmosphere is composed of nitrogen and oxygen.
D)
Because Mars' atmosphere is composed mostly of CO$_2$.
E)
Because it started out that way.
-----------
493. The lower end of the main sequence is set by
the point where
A)
hydrogen stays in a liquid form.
B)
gravity could make the star contract.
C)
stars are too faint for us to see.
D) a
star's core can just barely have hydrogen fusion.
E) internal
pressure would blow the star up.
-----------
494. About half of the heating of Jupiter's
atmosphere is due to energy coming up from lower depths. What is the source of
this energy?
A) It
is caused by the rapid rotation of the planet, which causes intense heating
through friction between the atmosphere and the ground.
B) It
is sunlight which is reflected from low-lying cloud layers.
C)
Jupiter is actually like a small star, with nuclear energy being
generated deep in its core.
D) It
is due to the greenhouse effect.
E) It
is due to heat in the interior, left over from the release of gravitational
energy when Jupiter formed.
-----------
495. The cluster turn-off point is
A)
hotter for older star clusters.
B)
located at the cluster's apex in the sky.
C) used
to find the ages of stars in a cluster.
D)
located near the Milky Way in the sky.
E)
located at the cluster's antapex in the sky.
-----------
496. The volcanic activity on the moon Io is due
to
A)
continuing contraction of Io's interior.
B)
heating of Io's interior by tidal forces due to the gravitational
effects of Jupiter.
C)
radioactive heating in its rocky interior.
D) the
slow release of heat energy left over from Io's original formation.
E)
constant impacts by large bodies captured by Jupiter's strong
gravitational field.
-----------
497. Different stars appear at different places on
the main
What fundamental physical quantity causes
these
stars
to be different?
A)
temperature at the surface
B) age
C) color
D) mass
E)
brightness
-----------
498. The Cassini/Huygens space probe will attempt
to land on the surface of Titan. Why are we so interested in this moon of
Saturn?
A)
Because after Earth's Moon, it is the next closest moon to which we can
travel.
B) To
obtain rock samples for age dating.
C)
Because the surface of Titan appears to have oceans of water
interspersed with rocky continents, just like on Earth.
D) We
wish to study the intense volcanic activity on its surface.
E) It
has an atmosphere with many similarities to Earth's.
-----------
499. The Sun's location on an H-R diagram is not
on the zero-age
main
sequence because the Sun has A) too much
pressure in its core to balance.
B)
converted the helium in its core to carbon.
C) the
same composition in the core as in the photosphere.
D) not
yet reached the zero-age main sequence.
E)
converted some of the hydrogen in its core to helium.
-----------
500. Which of the following statements about Pluto
is NOT true? A) It always shows the same
face to its moon.
B) It
is similar to some moons of the giant planets.
C) It
is in a very unusual orbit about the sun (as compared to the other planets).
D) It's
surface was mapped in great detail by a space probe.
E) It
has a moon half as big as the parent planet.
-----------
501. Unlike a main sequence star, a red giant at
its center may
be
fusing
A)
hydrogen into helium.
B) iron
into uranium.
C)
carbon into lead.
D)
helium into carbon.
E)
nothing. All fusion will have
stopped.
-----------
502. What is a major reason for the high level of
interest in near-Earth asteroids?
A) This
is the most numerous type of asteroid in the solar system.
B) We
want to know if any of them will hit the Earth anytime soon.
C) These
are thought to be fragments of the cataclysm that originally formed our Moon.
D)
These are thought to be far older than any other asteroids.
E) We
are searching for life-forms on these particular asteroids.
-----------
503. A star cluster whose H-R diagram has a main
sequence which
has
only very cool stars must be
A) very
old.
B) very
young.
C) very
far away.
D) in a
spiral arm.
-----------
504. Why is a comet's dust tail curved while its
ion tail is straight?
A) The
particles in the dust tail were ejected from the comet's nucleus many orbits
ago and are just trailing along behind in the comet's orbit, while the ion tail
is the material which is currently being ejected.
B) The
dust tail consists of particles that streamed off the comet's nucleus in the
ion tail, but are now falling back on to it.
C)
Because the particles in the dust tail are shot out of the comet's
nucleus by geyser-like activity.
D) The
particles in the ion tail are accelerated outwards much more strongly than those
in the dust tail, relative to the gravitational forces that try to keep the
particles in orbit about the Sun.
E)
Because the ion tail is the shadow of the comet in the light of the sun,
while the dust tail consists of actual particles.
-----------
505. A star cluster whose H-R diagram has a main
sequence which
includes
very hot stars must be
A) a
globular cluster.
B) very
young.
C) very
old.
D) very
far away.
-----------
506. The Moon has more maria
on its near side than on its far side. This is because:
A) The
Earth's gravitational pull causes more large bodies to strike the near side of
the Moon than the far side.
B) The
Earth's tidal pull has caused the Moon to have a thinner crust on the near
side.
C) The
volcanic activity on the far side occured earlier in
the Moon's history and has subsequently been covered by more craters than on
the near side.
D)
Greater volcanic activity on the far side has deposited a thicker layer
of material.
-----------
507. As our galaxy ages the abundance of heavy
elements in the
interstellar
medium will
A)
decrease.
B)
remain the same.
C)
increase.
-----------
508. Valles Marinaris is a wide, deep canyon stretching some 2500 miles
across the surface of Mars. How was it originally formed?
A) It
was caused by tectonic pressures from deep within the planet.
B) It
was produced suddenly by immense floods of water some 4 billion years ago.
C) It
was slowly cut by a river.
D) It
was scoured out of the Martian sands by the action of regular dust storms.
-----------
509. Listed in the order of their increasing
density we would
find
as follows the degenerate or collapsed configurations
of
material which are equivalent in mass to stars along the
main
sequence:
A)
white dwarfs, neutron stars, black holes.
B)
neutron stars, black holes, white dwarfs.
C)
black holes, white dwarfs, neutron stars.
D)
black holes, neutron stars, white dwarfs.
-----------
510. The surface of Venus has not been seen with
telescopes on
the
Earth due to
A)
interplanetary dust.
B) the
glare of the nearby Sun.
C) the
great distance between the Earth and Venus.
D)
clouds on Venus.
-----------
511. A neutron star is typically the size of
A) the
Sun.
B)
Mercury's orbit.
C) the
Earth's orbit.
D) the
Earth.
E) a
large city.
-----------
512. Impact craters are produced
A) only
on the Moon and on Mercury.
B) only
during the initial formation of the Solar System.
C) by
volcanic activity on the geologically active planets.
D) at a
(currently) steady rate on all exposed solid surfaces in the Solar System.
E) only
following lava flows.
-----------
513. After a supernova event, the remaining core
of the star may
become
a
A)
white dwarf
B)
planet
C)
quasar
D)
black dwarf
E)
neutron star
-----------
514. What is the explanation of tidal locking (the
tendency of a smaller body to always point the same face towards a larger body
about which it is orbiting)?
A)
Friction between the larger bodies and the tides on its surface drag the
smaller body more rapidly around in its orbit.
B)
Conservation of angular momentum.
C)
Circulating electrical charges in the core cause a magnetic field.
D) If
the smaller body has an elongated mass distribution, the gravitational force of
the larger body is strongest (potential energy is lowest) when the elongation
is pointed towards the larger body.
E) The
outer surface of the smaller body is dragged around on top of the mantle,
similar to the tides on Earth.
-----------
515. Which of the following behaves most like
degenerate matter?
A)
liquid water
B)
ionized iron gas
C) hydrogen gas
D) solid metal
E) carbon gas
-----------
516. A)
Friction between the larger bodies and the tides on its surface drag the
smaller body more rapidly around in its orbit.
B)
Conservation of angular momentum.
C) If
the smaller body has an elongated mass distribution, the gravitational force of
the larger body is strongest (potential energy is lowest) when the elongation
is pointed towards the larger body.
D) The
outer surface of the smaller body is dragged around on top of the mantle,
similar to the tides on Earth.
E)
Circulating electrical charges in the core cause a magnetic field.
-----------
517. The Chandrasekhar limit implies that stars
ending up more
25
solar masses cannot become
A)
neutron stars
B)
black holes
C)
supernovae
D)
giant stars
E)
white dwarfs
-----------
518. Which of the following does NOT need to be
described by an equation when computing a model of the Sun's interior?
A) The
Sun formed from the solar nebula.
B) The
Sun is neither contracting nor expanding.
C) The
Sun is neither heating up nor cooling down.
D) The
way in which energy is transported through the Sun's interior.
E) The
Sun is made out of gas.
-----------
519. Suspected black holes are detected as _____
in a binary
A)
X-ray objects
B)
novae
C)
observed singularities
D) dark
objects
E)
Black holes cannot be detected by any known means.
-----------
520. What is the most important factor that tells
us that the Sun's interior structure $must$ change and evolve?
A)
Matter is steadily being accreted onto the Sun through collisions with
asteroids and comets.
B) Mass
is being lost in huge quantities through the solar wind.
C)
Differentiation (the downward settling of heavier elements) is bringing
helium into the central core.
D) The
composition is being changed by the nuclear reactions.
-----------
521. The light variation of a Cepheid variable is
best explained
by
the theory that Cepheids are
A)
pulsating
B)
exploding
C)
black holes
D)
rapidly rotating
E)
binary stars
-----------
522. What is currently the major source of the
Sun's energy?
A)
Conversion of helium to iron through the proton-proton reaction.
B)
Gravitational contraction.
C)
Angular momentum.
D)
Conversion of hydrogen to helium through the proton-proton reaction.
E)
Conversion of helium to iron through the CNO cycle.
-----------
523. Miss Leavitt arrived at a period-luminosity
relation for
Cepheid
variables from her studies of
A)
binary stars
B) the Magellanic Clouds
C)
globular clusters
D)
galaxies
-----------
524. Where in the Sun is most of its energy
produced?
A) Only
in the layer where there is a lot of convection going on.
B)
Pretty much throughout the Sun.
C) Only
near the photosphere.
D) In
the central core.
E)
Nowhere.
-----------
525. Mass flowing onto the surface of a white
dwarf star can
cause
the star to become a
A) red
giant star
B)
Cepheid variable star
C) red
dwarf star
D)
black hole
E) nova
-----------
526. When you look up at the Sun in the sky, NOT
during an eclipse, the glowing part which you can directly see is called
A) the
photosphere.
B) the
bathysphere.
C) the chromosphere.
D) the
corona.
E) the
reflection of Detroit.
-----------
527. Where does the Crab Nebula ultimately get the
energy which
is
observed as radiation being emitted by the nebula?
A) from
a slowdown in the spin of a neutron star
B) from
the original supernova explosion
C) from
a pulsating white dwarf
D) from
fusion of hydrogen to helium
E) from
very fast vibrations of a neutron star
-----------
528. Which part of the Sun's atmosphere (i.e. its
outer layers) is the hottest?
A) all
parts have the same temperature (5800 degrees K).
B) the
photosphere.
C) the
corona.
D) the
sunspots.
E) the
transition region.
-----------
529. The Crab Nebula is the result of a supernova
explosion
At the present time
the
nebula
A) is
contracting as matter falls back onto the star.
B) is
still expanding from the original explosion.
C)
appears to be expanding because it is getting closer.
D) has
become static and quite featureless.
-----------
530. When ``prominences'' of hot gas are ejected
from the sun's surface, what force causes them to often form huge arcs?
A)
Gravity.
B) The
electrostatic force.
C) Jedi
warriors.
D)
Conservation of angular momentum.
E)
Magnetic fields.
-----------
531. The heavy elements we see in the universe
probably were
created
mainly in
A)
planetary nebulae.
B) nova
explosions.
C) red
giant stars.
D)
supernova explosions.
E)
Bethlehem Steel.
-----------
532. If you measure the flux from a star and want
to know its luminosity, what other parameter do you need to measure?
A) its
temperature.
B) its
age
C) its
distance
D) its
color
E) its
diameter
-----------
533. A planetary nebula represents the transition
between what
two
stages of a star?
A) red
giants and white dwarf
B)
proto-star and main sequence
C)
proto-star and red giant
D) main
sequence and Cepheid variable
E) red
giant and supernova
-----------
534. Which of the following is a method for
measuring the surface temperature of a star?
A)
Using a spectrograph to see what absorption lines are present in its
spectrum.
B)
Measuring its color, using colored filters and a photocell.
C) None
of the other answers are correct.
D)
Measuring its flux and distance.
E) Two
of the other answers are correct.
-----------
535. The three fundamental forces are
A)
faith, hope and charity
B)
electrical, magnetic and nuclear
C)
gravity, nature and repulsion
D)
earth, wind and fire
E)
gravitational, electromagnetic, and nuclear
-----------
536. If hydrogen is the most common element in the
universe, why do we not see the lines of hydrogen in the spectra of the hottest
stars?
A)
Because the hottest stars emit all of their light as x-rays and are
invisible from Earth.
B) In
the hottest stars, hydrogen atoms are ionized, so there are no electrons to
produce hydrogen lines in the spectrum.
C) In
the hottest stars, hydrogen can quickly combine with oxygen to make H$_2$O,
whose spectrum conists of completely different lines.
D) In
the hottest stars, all hydrogen in the star has quickly fused into helium.
E) In
the hottest stars, hydrogen nuclei are forced to break apart into smaller
nuclei.
-----------
537. Even though they have average densities
roughly equal to
that
of water, main sequence stars are gaseous because
their
interior temperatures are so high that they are
completely
ionized and the average particle size is
therefore
not the size of the atom, but the size of the
nucleus
of the atom
A)
False
B) True
-----------
538. If you compare the spectra of two stars which
have the same chemical composition, and see that in star A the absorption lines
of hydrogen come from more highly excited states than in star B, then you know
that
A) star
A has a larger radius than star B.
B) star
A is cooler than star B.
C) star
A has a smaller radius than star B.
D) that
both stars are made of pure hydrogen (no other elements present).
E) star
A is hotter than star B.
-----------
539. The temperature in the center of the Sun is
about _____
A) 15,
unclear fishing
B) 15
million, hydrogen fusion
C) 15
hundred, nuclear fission
D) 15
thousand, hydrogen fusion
E) 15
billion, helium fusion
-----------
540. What causes the 11 and 22-year Solar Cycle in
which the numbers of sunspots change in a periodic way?
A) The
Sun's rate of spin changes on an 11 year cycle.
B) The
Sun's magnetic field winds up, disappears, and then is regenerated.
C) The
sunspots are caused by the Sun's gravitational interaction with Jupiter, which
has an 11-year orbital period.
D) The
sunspots are due to asteroids crashing into the sun, the rate of which varies
on an 11 year cycle.
E) The
rate at which the Sun generates energy changes on an 11 year cycle.
-----------
541. The "Northern Lights" are caused by
A)
nuclear fission.
B)
gravitational contraction.
C) the
solar wind.
D)
nuclear fusion.
-----------
542. What important fact can you learn by
measuring the shifts of the absorption lines in the spectra of the stars in a
spectroscopic binary system?
A) The
relative luminosities of the two stars.
B) The
relative ages of the two stars.
C) The
sum of the masses of the two stars.
D) That
it is no longer possible to learn what chemical elements are in the star.
E) The
distance to the pair of stars.
-----------
543. The equivalence between mass and energy was
first stated by
_____
A) Capriotti, E=M
B) Einstein, E=MC2
C) Kirchhoff, E=MC
D) Fraunhofer,
E=MC4
E) Newton, E=MC3
-----------
544. Ninety percent of all stars, if plotted on
the H-R diagram, would fall into a region astronomers call:
A) the
pits.
B) the
white dwarf region.
C) the
main sequence.
D) the
visual region.
E) the supergiant region.
-----------
545. The following energy sources occur in the
core of the Sun
during
its pre-main sequence, main sequence, and red giant
stages
respectively:
A)
hydrogen fusion, gravitational contraction, helium
B)
cosmic rays, gravitational contraction, hydrogen fusion.
C)
helium fusion, hydrogen fusion, carbon fusion.
D)
gravitational contraction, hydrogen fusion, helium
E)
hydrogen fusion, helium fusion, carbon fusion.
-----------
546. A giant star, compared to a main sequence
star with the same surface temperature, would always be
A)
farther away from Earth.
B) redder.
C) smaller in diameter.
D) more luminous.
E)
bluer.
-----------
547. Young stars being born are best seen in the
_____ part of
A)
radio
B)
visible
C)
gamma-ray
D)
infrared
E)
ultraviolet
-----------
548. The Orion Nebula is
A) a
small disk of gas the size of our solar system, from which planets are forming.
B) a
bubble of hot gas illuminated by the light of several newly-formed stars within
it.
C) the
reflection off a molecular cloud of continuum light from distant stars.
D) a
region heated by the collision between two massive stars.
E) the
remnant of a star which exploded several thousand years ago.
-----------
549. A newly-formed star with the Sun's mass
slowly contracts
toward
the main sequence, radiating at the expense of ____
until
the onset of _____ stops the contraction and supports
A)
gravitational energy, hydrogen fusion
B)
electromagnetic energy, hydrogen fusion
C)
hydrogen fusion, helium fusion
D)
gravitational energy, helium fusion
-----------
550. The main sequence is a sequence of surface
temperature. What other physical property of a star varies continuously
along
the main sequence?
A)
rotational velocity
B)
chemical composition
C) mass
D)
extent of the corona
E) age
-----------
551. The order of the stages of evolution a star
like our Sun
goes
through is
A) red
giant, white dwarf, main sequence, proto-star.
B)
proto-star, white dwarf, main sequence, red giant.
C)
proto-star, main sequence, red giant, white dwarf.
D) red
giant, main sequence, proto-star, white dwarf.
E)
proto-star, red giant, main sequence, white dwarf.
-----------
552. Which technique has led to the discovery of
most of the currently-known planets outside the solar system?
A)
directly taking pictures of the planet.
B)
measuring periodic dimming of the star about which the planet orbits.
C)
measuring periodic changes in the radial velocity of the star about
which the planet orbits.
D) the
discovery that many political figures seem to live on distant planets.
-----------
553. A cluster of stars contains, O, B, and A main
sequence
stars
but it also contains G and K stars lying above the
It can be concluded that
A) I
have gotten some incorrect data from my observations.
B) the
cluster is extremely young.
C) the
cluster is about the age of the Sun.
D) I
have found a halo population object.
-----------
554. The big suprise
about most of the extra-solar planets discovered to date is:
A) they
do not yet have McDonald's hamburger stands.
B) they
have masses similar to Jupiter, but orbits smaller than Earth's.
C) they
are found only around the most massive stars.
D) they
not only have small orbits, but short orbital periods.
E) only
Jupiter-sized planets have been found.
-----------
555. Those main-sequence stars which go through
their evolution
most
rapidly are the
A)
stars like the Sun.
B) All
main sequence stars evolve at the same rate.
C) red
stars of low mass.
D) very
massive stars.
-----------
556. What causes the center of a proto-star to
heat up during the time that it is contracting towards the main sequence on the
H-R diagram?
A)
Nuclear fusion.
B)
Nuclear fission.
C) It
is absorbing radiation from nearby stars.
D) It
is converting H into R.
E)
Release of gravitational potential energy.
-----------
557. T Tauri stars are
apparently
A)
stars that have not yet quite reached the main sequence.
B) left
over from a nova outburst.
C)
faint main sequence stars.
D)
found mostly in old star clusters.
E)
stars that just left the main sequence.
-----------
558. What is the most likely cause of the
"Pillars of Creation" in M16?
A) They
are molecular gas that has not evaporated because it is in the shadow of
particularly dense globules.
B) They
are material being squirted out from the site of a collision between two giant
molecular clouds.
C) The
force of gravity causes the molecular gas to collapse into long, narrow
streamers.
D) The
molecular gas has condensed in the wake of rapidly moving stars.
E) They
are just chance patterns in a complex jumble of cloud shapes.
-----------
559. If we compare two main sequence stars of the
same mass, one
formed
recently and the other formed 10 billion years ago,
we
find that the older star
A) has
much stronger spectral lines of hydrogen.
B) is
considerably larger.
C) has
a much higher luminosity.
D) has
a much lower abundance of heavy elements.
E)
probably has much smaller space velocity.
-----------
560. What is the energy source of stars on the
main sequence of the H-R diagram?
A) Release
of gravitational energy.
B)
Burning helium into carbon in the core of the star.
C) The
breakup of uranium into lighter elements.
D)
Burning hydrogen into helium in the core of the star.
E)
Burning hydrogen into helium in a shell outside the core of the star.
-----------
561. The elements more massive than iron were
produced in
A) main
sequence stars
B)
proto-stars
C) the
planets
D)
supernova explosions
E)
white dwarf stars
-----------
562. Which type of star spends the longest time on
the main sequence?
A) A
red giant.
B) A
white dwarf.
C) A
star like the Sun.
D) A
low-mass M star.
E) A
high-mass O star.
-----------
563. Which choice has the objects ranked by size,
largest to
smallest?
A)
black hole, red giant, sun, neutron star, white dwarf
B) sun,
red giant, black hole, neutron star
C) red
giant, sun, white dwarf, neutron star, black hole
D) red
giant, white dwarf, sun, neutron star, black hole
-----------
564. What determines how long different types of
stars last on the main sequence?
A)
Whether they transport energy to their surface by convection or by
radiation.
B) The
rate at which they burn their fuel relative to the amount of fuel they start
with.
C)
Their eventual diameters when they have run out of nuclear fuel.
D) The
rate at which they can contract due to the force of gravity.
E)
Whether they are made out of pure hydrogen or pure helium.
-----------
565. A white dwarf is typically the size of ___
and ______ in
A) the
Sun, gaseous
B) the
Earth's orbit, gaseous
C) the
Earth, metallic
D)
Mercury's orbit, liquid
E) a
large city, metallic
-----------
566. As a star becomes a giant, its outer layers
are expanding. Where does the energy for expanding these layers come from?
A) from
the fusion of helium into carbon in the core.
B) from
the gravitational collapse of the core.
C) from
the fusion of hydrogen into helium in the core.
D) from
an explosion which disentegrates the core
E) from
the fusion of hydrogen into helium in a shell around the core.
-----------
567. The Chandrasekhar limit implies that stars
ending up more
4
solar masses cannot become
A)
black holes
B)
neutron stars
C)
supernovae
D)
giant stars
E)
white dwarfs
-----------
568. How can we tell the age of a cluster of
stars?
A) The
lowest mass star on the cluster's H-R diagram tells you the age of the cluster.
B) The
hottest star on the cluster's main sequence is just finishing its life on the
main-sequence.
C) The
flux coming from a main-sequence M star is propotional
to its age.
D) The
luminosity of a main-sequence M star is proportional to its age.
-----------
569. Black holes are
A) very
cold stars.
B)
always extremely massive objects.
C)
places where gravity prevents light from escaping.
D)
places where no matter can exist.
-----------
570. When the core of a star is not burning
nuclear fuel, what is it doing (up until it becomes a white dwarf)?
A)
Contracting and heating.
B)
Expanding and heating.
C)
Expanding and cooling.
D) It
just sits there hoping for something to happen.
E)
Contracting and cooling.
-----------
571. The second time the Sun moves into the red
giant stage it
will
become a _____ that will eject its envelope forming a
A)
eclipsing variable, black hole, Cepheid variable
B)
supernova remnant, neutron star, black hole
C) Mira
variable, planetary nebula, white dwarf
D)
planetary nebula, white dwarf, neutron star
-----------
572. If the Sun suddenly became twice as large in
diameter as it is now, but maintained the same surface temperature, which way
would it move on the H-R diagram?
A)
directly to the right.
B)
straight down.
C)
diagonally to the upper right.
D)
diagonally to the upper left.
E)
straight up.
-----------
573. In 1912 Miss Leavitt discovered that the
Cepheid variables
in
the Small Magellanic Cloud
A)
obeyed a period-mass relation.
B)
obeyed a period-luminosity relation.
C) were
all the same brightness.
D) all
had the same period.
-----------
574. Why are the less massive stars NOT able to
produce elements heavier than carbon and oxygen?
A)
because the star's center cannot get hot enough for the fusion of
heavier nuclei.
B)
because the cores of such stars get too hot for further types of fusion
to be able to happen.
C)
because all such elements become radioactive and their nuclei break
apart rather quickly.
D)
because all such stars explode before they can produce heavier elements.
E)
because those are the two most stable nuclei; production of heavier nuclei
requires the input of energy.
-----------
575. Most, and maybe all, novae apparently are
____ that involve
A)
pulsating stars, rotating white dwarf
B)
members of close binary stars, white dwarf
C) main
sequence stars, mira variable
D) rotating
neutron stars, pulsating star
E) red
giants, neutron star
-----------
576. What is the source of pressure that holds up
a white dwarf?
A)
Nuclear reactions.
B) The
electrostatic repulsion between the neutrons in its core.
C) The
expansion of hot gas.
D) Its
electrons cannot be squeezed any closer together.
E)
Sound waves.
-----------
577. The Crab Nebula was caused by a
A) nova
B)
supernova
-----------
578. Why do neutron stars emit periodic pulses of
light?
A) They
are in short-period orbits around larger stars which periodically block our
view of the pulsar.
B) They
are powered by wildly unstable nuclear reactions.
C) They
emit narrow beams of light that rapidly rotate through our field of view.
D) They
suffer frequent power outages due to winter storms.
-----------
579. The heaviest (most complex) atomic nuclei
found on Earth
were
made in
A) the
outer layers of a pulsating M star.
B) the
explosion of a supernova.
C) a
planetary nebula.
D) the
interior of the Sun.
-----------
580. Which of the following chemical elements has
the simplest structure in its nucleus?
A) carbon
B) oxygen
C) iron
D) hydrogen
E)
uranium
-----------
581. The variability of the light from Cepheid
variable star is
A)
caused by a pulsation.
B)
caused by an eclipsing compainion.
C)
undetectable.
D)
non-repeating.
-----------
582. Which of the following is NOT a possible end
point in stellar evolution?
A)
White dwarf.
B)
Black hole.
C) All
of these are possible end points.
D)
Neutron star.
E) Main
sequence star.
-----------
583. The "Kapteyn
universe" was an early model for the
A)
universe, with the Sun at the center.
B)
universe, with the Sun displaced from the center.
C)
universe, similar to the
D) universe,
similar to the
-----------
584. Stars are born in regions rich in
A) red
giants.
B)
heavy elements.
C) dust
and gas.
D)
planetary nebulae.
E)
globular clusters.
-----------
585. The main reason Herschel thought the Milky
Way galaxy was
considerably
smaller than it really is was because he did
not
include the effects of
A) H II
regions.
B)
bright blue stars.
C)
radio and spectral lines.
D)
interstellar dust.
E) the
lack of heavy elements in nearby stars.
-----------
586. The most massive stars
A) are
the coolest stars.
B) have
the shortest lives.
C) have
the smallest diameters.
D) live
the longest.
E) are
the least luminous.
-----------
587. Roughly how long does it take for the Sun to
go around the
Galaxy
one time?
A)
6,000 years
B) 250
billion years
C)
100,000 years
D) 250
million years
E) 1 killion years
-----------
588. When we apply the famous equation E=mc$^2$ to
the Sun's energy source, what does this tell us?
A) That
the total kinetic energy contained in the Sun is its mass multiplied by the
speed of light squared.
B) That
the total gravitational energy of the Sun is its mass multipled
by c squared.
C) That
protons must be moving at nearly the speed of light in order to have enough
energy to react.
D) That
some of the Sun's initial mass of hydrogen can be converted to energy through
the conversion of hydrogen to helium.
E) That
nuclear fusion reactions cannot be the source of the Sun's power.
-----------
589. The 21 cm radio line, seen in many
interstellar clouds, is
produced
by the spin-flip of an electron in
A)
neutral hydrogen.
B)
neutral iron.
C)
neutral helium.
D)
interstellar molecules.
E)
ionized hydrogen.
-----------
590. The Drake Equation tries to calculate the number
of intelligent civilizations that might be trying to communicate with us at any
time. The problem with this equation is:
A) it
is irrelevant becasue nobody is looking for signals
from other civilizations.
B) it
ignores the effect of dust between the stars.
C) it
is a string of probabilities, many of which have unknown values.
D) it
does not take the speed of light into account.
E) no
planets have ever been found around other stars.
-----------
591. The spiral arms of our Galaxy can be located
by the use of
A)
double stars.
B) red
giants.
C)
hydrogen 21 cm lines.
D)
supernovae.
E)
white dwarfs.
-----------
592. Which part of the Sun has the greatest
density?
A) The
photosphere.
B)
Since the sun is made of gas, all parts must have the same density.
C) The
corona.
D) The
central core.
E) The
convection region.
-----------
593. The mass of our Galaxy is best found by
measuring
A) how
much interstellar hydrogen is emitting radio waves.
B) the
number of stars in the galaxy.
C) the
number of hot main sequence stars.
D) the
masses of binary stars.
E) the
rotation of the galaxy.
-----------
594. Where in the Sun is most of its energy
produced?
A) In
the central core.
B)
Nowhere.
C) Only
near the photosphere.
D) Only
in the layer where there is a lot of convection going on.
E)
Pretty much throughout the Sun.
-----------
595. Populations I and II can be distinguished by
means of
differences
in
A) All
of these answers are correct.
B)
motions and positions in the galaxy.
C)
chemical composition.
D)
position in the H-R diagram.
-----------
596. How is energy transported through the
interior of the sun?
A) Hot
bubbles of gas are formed at the very center and then float to the surface,
while cool gas flows downward clear to the center.
B) By
conduction in the central, solid core, then by convection further out.
C) By
the random walk of radiation, all the way from the center to the surface.
D) By
radiation in the inner part, and then by convection in the outer part.
E) By
photons which are emitted in the center and then escape in one shot all the way
out through the surface.
-----------
597. O and B associations and their H II regions
are usually
found
in what part of the galaxy?
A)
spiral arms
B)
globular clusters
C) halo
D) None
of the other answers.
E)
nucleus
-----------
598. What is the most abundant element in the Sun?
A) nitrogen
B) helium
C) kryptonite
D) oxygen
E)
hydrogen
-----------
599. Shapley determined the direction of and the
distance to the
center
of the galaxy by correctly assuming the frame of the
galaxy
is represented by the distribution of
A)
binary stars
B)
Cepheid variables
C)
globular clusters
D) O
type stars
-----------
600. On Earth, a period of low sunspot activity
such as the Maunder minimum, means:
A) less
volcanic activity.
B) a
climate with cooler temperatures.
C) very
little; there is no connection between the Sun's activity and what happens on
Earth.
D)
partial melting of the polar icecaps.
-----------
601. The globular clusters
A) are
concentrated near the edge of the galaxy.
B) are
present only in our galaxy.
C) are
concentrated in spiral arms.
D) are
concentrated in the galactic nucleus.
E) are
spherically distributed about the galactic center.
-----------
602. According to the inverse square law, the flux
received from a star 3 times farther away than another identical star will be
A) 9
times larger than the flux from the nearer star.
B) 3
times larger than the flux from the nearer star.
C) the
same as the flux from the nearer star.
D) 9
times smaller than the flux from the nearer star.
E) 3
times smaller than the flux from the nearer star.
-----------
603. If we located clouds of gas and dust on a
chart of the sky,
where
are the clouds generally located?
A)
Scattered fairly uniformly over the whole sky.
B) In
regions away from the Milky Way.
C)
Along the ecliptic.
D)
Along the Milky Way.
E) In
the same region where globular clusters are.
-----------
604. If stars A and B both radiate like black
bodies, and star A is hotter than star B but both stars have the same
diameters, then
A) star
A will emit less total energy than does star B.
B) the
atoms in the atmosphere of star A will be less ionized than those in star B.
C)
Trick question. All stars have the same surface temperature.
D) star
A will emit its maximum amount of light at a smaller wavelength than does star
B.
E) star
A will appear red while star B will appear blue.
-----------
605. Complex molecules such as alcohol are found
mostly in
A) the
atmospheres of hot stars.
B)
supernovae.
C)
emission nebulae.
D) dark
dust clouds.
E)
sunspots.
-----------
606. Which color star is likely to be the hottest?
A) Red
B)
Yellow
C)
Green
D) Blue-violet
E) Orange
-----------
607. A good example of a dark nebula is the
A) Veil
Nebula in Cygnus.
B)
Trapezium in Orion.
C) Ring
Nebula in Lyra.
D) Horsehead Nebula in Orion.
E) Crab
Nebula in Taurus.
-----------
608. How are emission lines formed?
A) They
are formed when an atom is cooled down to absolute 0 (0$^o$ K).
B) They
are formed in the process of an atom being ionized.
C) An
electron jumps to a higher orbit (farther from the nucleus).
D) An
electron falls to a lower orbit (closer to the nucleus).
E) They
are paid for by soft campaign funds.
-----------
609. If several luminous hot stars are seen
embedded in a cloud
of
glowing gas in the sky, we are probably seeing an area
A)
where a supernova recently exploded.
B)
where stars are dying out.
C)
where a new galaxy is forming.
D)
where several planetary nebulae are close together.
E) of
recent star formation.
-----------
610. Which type of star has the coolest surface
temperature?
A) A
stars
B) F
stars
C) G
stars
D) M
stars
E) O
stars
-----------
611. What color is a typical reflection nebula,
and why?
A)
Blue; the illuminating star is blue.
B)
Blue; blue light reflects better off dust particles.
C) Red;
it radiates like a red-hot black body.
D) Red;
hydrogen has a strong red spectral line.
E) Red;
red light reflects better of dust particles.
-----------
612. If you look at the spectrum of a cool gas
superimposed in front of a bright background black-body source, you will see
A)
emission lines on top of continuum radiation.
B) only
emission lines.
C)
absorption lines cutting into continuum radiation.
D) no
light at all.
E) only
continuum radiation.
-----------
613. The Galaxy is at present thought to be about
A)
1,000,000 light years in diameter.
B) 100
light years in diameter.
C) None
of the choices given here is correct.
D) 100
parsecs in diameter.
E)
100,000 light years in diameter.
-----------
614. What is the basic idea behind the parallax
method of measuring distances to stars?
A) You
measure the shift in wavelength of an emission or absorption line.
B) You
measure the difference in time for light to travel to one side of Earth's orbit
or to the other side.
C) You
measure the flux and luminosity of a star, and then solve for its distance.
D) You
measure the change in direction to the star as the Earth moves from one side of
its orbit to the other.
E) The
speed of the arriving photons depends on the distance to the star which emitted
them.
-----------
615. The best estimate of the mass of the milky
way galaxy is
the
equivalent of about
A) 200
suns.
B)
200,000,000 suns.
C)
200,000 suns.
D) 200
billion suns.
E) 200
trillion suns.
-----------
616. You are measuring the spectrum of the stars
in a spectroscopic binary system. When one of the stars is moving toward the
Earth in its orbit, you observe
A) that
the lines in its spectrum move towards shorter wavelengths.
B) none
of the other answers is correct.
C) that
it is no longer possible to learn what chemical elements are in the star.
D) that
the lines in its spectrum merge with the lines of the other star.
E) that
the lines in its spectrum get brighter.
-----------
617. The three main types of galaxies are
A)
spiral, globular, erratic
B)
globular, irregular, open
C)
small, medium and large
D)
spiral, elliptical, irregular
-----------
618. Which has the smallest mass?
A) the
Sun
B) a
brown dwarf.
C) an M
star.
D) the
Universe.
E) a planet.
-----------
619. The distance to nearby galaxies can be
obtained from
A)
trigonometric parallax.
B)
spectroscopic parallax.
C)
Hubble's law.
D) red
giant stars.
E)
Cepheid variables.
-----------
620. Which of the following sets of parameters
determines the position of a star on the HR diagram?
A) Its
luminosity and temperature.
B) Its
flux, distance, and spectral type.
C) Its
temperature and diameter.
D) All
of these do.
E) Its
luminosity and spectral type.
-----------
621. The galaxies near us (out to about 1 million
parsecs) are
called
A) M33
B) the
near ones
C) the
nearby crowd
D) the
local group
E) None
of these.
-----------
622. Ninety percent of all stars (if plotted on
the H-R diagram) would fall into a region astronomers call:
A) the
pits.
B) the
white dwarf region.
C) the
visual region.
D) the supergiant region.
E) the
main sequence.
-----------
623. Distances to individual galaxies can be
estimated by using
A)
supernovae in galaxies.
B) Cepheid
variables in galaxies.
C) the
globular clusters in the galaxies.
D) all
of the other answers.
E) H II
regions.
-----------
624. A giant star (compared to a main sequence
star with the same surface temperature) would always be
A)
farther away from Earth.
B) redder.
C) larger in diameter.
D) less luminous.
E)
bluer.
-----------
625. The most massive galaxies belong to the type
of galaxies
known
as
A) ellipticals
B)
globular
C)
irregular
D)
barred spirals
E)
normal spirals
-----------
626. When a star settles down to a stable
existence as a main-sequence star, what characteristic determines where on the
main sequence in an H-R diagram the star will fall?
A) its
mass.
B)
whether it is located in the outer regions or the central regions of the
molecular cloud that gave it birth.
C) the
temperature of the molecular cloud from which it formed.
D) the
size of the disk around it.
E) the
fraction of its atmosphere that consists of hydrogen.
-----------
627. Which type has no interstellar medium or
young stars?
A)
spiral
B)
elliptical
C) Seyfert
-----------
628. Why do young stars often have long, narrow
streams of material sticking out from them in two opposite directions?
A) The
rapidly-moving protostar has carved a long tunnel
through the interstellar dust, and is able to excite and ionize the gas in this
tunnel.
B) They
are losing mass, which is being channeled by a disk surrounding the star.
C) In
all cases these are actually just disks seen edge-on.
D)
Material falls onto the proto-star just at its poles, because of the
star's strong magnetic field.
E)
Newton's law of action-reaction requires this.
-----------
629. Ring galaxies and galaxies with long
"tails" are thought to
be
created by
A) two galaxies
colliding.
B)
supernova explosion.
C)
rapid rotation of a spiral galaxy.
D)
spiral arms that became unusually massive.
E) hot
intergalactic gas.
-----------
630. The average kinetic energy of the individual
atoms in a gas cloud is measured by
A)
chemical composition.
B)
their temperature.
C)
density.
D)
pressure.
E)
mass.
-----------
631. A galaxy that has no bright blue stars would
be expected to
have
A) a
relatively low mass.
B) a
rapid rotation.
C)
bright emission nebulae.
D)
relatively frequent supernova explosions.
E)
little interstellar gas and dust.
-----------
632. The luminosity of a star
A) was
first introduced by Hipparchus.
B) can
be measured only if the star is ten parsecs away.
C) is
the rate a which it radiates energy.
D)
usually is greater for stars with large proper motion.
E)
depends upon the distance to the star.
-----------
633. Hubble's law states that the velocity of recesssion of a
A)
galaxy is inversely proportional to its distance.
B)
galaxy is independent of its distance.
C) star
is inversely proportional to its distance.
D)
galaxy is proportional to its distance.
E) star
is proportional to its distance.
-----------
634. From a star's distance and flux, one can find
the star's
A)
proper motion.
B)
space velocity.
C)
tangential velocity.
D)
luminosity.
E)
spectral type.
-----------
635. Hubble's study of the distribution of
galaxies indicated
that
A) the
galaxies are distributed uniformly in the sky.
B) few
galaxies are seen near the plane of the Milky Way.
C) more
galaxies are counted towards the globular clusters.
D) tend
to occur near H II regions.
-----------
636. If two stars have the same luminosity, the
cooler star must have a
A)
larger diameter.
B)
bluer color.
C)
larger Doppler shift.
D)
smaller radius
E)
greater mass.
-----------
637. Which is used to measure the mass of a
galaxy?
A)
period-luminosity relation
B)
inverse square law
C) Kepler's third law
D)
total luminosity of galaxy
E)
principle of relativity
-----------
638. There are three stars which are all at the
same distance and are the same size.
Star A is 5000 degrees, star B is 8000 degrees and star C is 10,000
degrees. Which is brightest?
A) star
C
B) star
A
C) They
are all equally bright.
D) star
B
-----------
639. The concept of the "Expanding
Universe" is based on the
interpretation
of the observed red shifts of the galaxies
as
due to
A)
Doppler effect.
B)
continuous creation of matter.
C)
D)
Communist infiltration.
E)
-----------
640. The redder a star is,
A) the
larger it must be.
B) the
lower its surface temperature.
C) the
denser it is.
D) the
younger it is.
E) the
smaller it must be.
-----------
641. The arms of spiral galaxies
A)
trail behind the galactic rotation.
B) pull
the galaxy around behind them.
C) are
jet propelled.
D)
expel population II stars into the corona.
-----------
642. The main reason the pattern of stellar
spectral lines changes from one spectral type to the next is the
A)
temperature changes.
B)
composition changes.
C)
absolute magnitude changes.
D)
diameter changes.
-----------
643. The properties which collectively
characterize Population I
(disk
population) stars are
A) higher
metal abundances, younger ages, circular orbits.
B) low
metal abundances, old ages, elongated orbits.
C) low
metal abundances, young ages, no massive stars.
D)
found only in black holes, old ages.
-----------
644. The letters classifying the spectral sequence
of stars from blue to red (high temperature to low temperature) is
A) O B A F G K M
B) A B C D E F G
C) M K G A F B O
D) B A L D W I N
E) M A Y B E M E
-----------
645. Light has a dual nature; sometimes behaving
like waves,
A)
False
B) True
-----------
646. Knowing only the color of a star, one can
often estimate the star's
A)
luminosity
B)
apparent magnitude
C)
radial velocity
D)
temperature
E) mass
-----------
647. The rotation curve of our galaxy indicates
that objects in
the
galaxy orbit the galactic center primarily under the
gravitational
influence of:
A)
neighboring galaxies.
B) a
massive black hole at the center of the galaxy.
C) a
massive dark matter halo.
D) the
material in the spiral arms.
E) main
sequence 0-type stars.
-----------
648. The most abundant chemical elements in a
star's photosphere will almost always give the strongest spectral lines in the
star's visible spectrum.
A)
False
B) True
C)
Disregard this choice
D)
Disregard this choice
-----------
649. Herschel and later Kapteyn
concluded that the Milky Way
consists
of a disk with the Sun near the center, based on
his
observations of
A)
distances and directions of globular clusters.
B) O
and B stars.
C) the
21-cm emission line.
D) the
number of stars he saw in different directions.
E) H II
regions.
-----------
650. As we look at the stars hotter than spectral
class A, the higher the temperature, the weaker the hydrogen spectral
lines. Why?
A) The
hydrogen is used to form molecules.
B) All
hydrogen atoms have electrons in the first orbit.
C)
Strong helium lines cover the hydrogen lines.
D) Too
much of the hydrogen is ionized.
E) Very
hot stars have converted hydrogen to helium.
-----------
651. Stars in the neighborhood of the Sun revolve
once around
the
center of the galaxy in about
A) 200
billion years.
B) 250
million years.
C) 2
million syears.
D) 2
billion years.
-----------
652. With knowledge of a star's flux and
luminosity, one can compute its
A) mass
B)
radius
C)
distance
D)
temperature
E)
surface gravity
-----------
653. The gas and dust in the Galaxy is strongly
confined to the
A)
reflection nebulae.
B)
diffuse nebulae.
C)
galactic halo.
D) H II
regions.
E) spiral
arms.
-----------
654. If we compare two stars of different
temperature, the hotter star
A)
always looks brighter as seen from Earth.
B)
always will be larger.
C)
always emits more energy from each unit area
D)
always has higher luminosity.
-----------
655. The general structure of spiral arms in
distant parts of
our
galaxy can be mapped using
A)
visible light.
B) the
10-Mhz frequency of WWV.
C) the
21-cm radiation of hydrogen.
D)
visible light and 21-cm radiation of H I.
-----------
656. The difference between a normal atom and its
ion is the fact that the ion
A) None
of the other answers is correct.
B) is
moving more slowly than a normal atom.
C)
doesn't have the usual number of electrons for that atom.
D) has
more static electricity in its nucleus.
E)
weighs more than the atom.
-----------
657. To map very distant spiral arms in our
galaxy, we must use
21-centimeter
radiation rather than young hot stars because
A)
young hot stars are obscured by 21-cm radiation.
B) hot
stars get slightly reddened and look like cool stars.
C)
distant stars show large Doppler shifts.
D)
radio waves penetrate dust clouds.
E)
radio waves penetrate interstellar gas.
-----------
658. While observing the spectrum of a distant star,
an astronomer notices that every few hours each spectral line splits and
becomes two. It can be concluded
A) the
astronomer has periodic fuzzy vision.
B) the
star is moving toward the Earth.
C)
there are really two stars that orbit each other.
D) the
star is pulsating in size.
-----------
659. Generally, as a star orbits in our galaxy,
the closer it
stays
to the galactic plane the
A) less
metals it has.
B)
older it is.
C) more
eccentric its orbit around the galaxy.
D) less
massive it is.
E)
younger it is.
-----------
660. The study of binary stars is important
because it allows us to measure
A)
masses of stars.
B)
temperature of stars.
C)
distances of stars.
D)
parallaxes and proper motions of stars.
E)
absolute magnitude of stars.
-----------
661. Shapley estimated the distance to the center
of our galaxy
from
the locations of
A)
galactic clusters.
B)
21-centimeter radio emission from hydrogen.
C)
young massive main sequence stars.
D)
Cepheid variables.
E) globular
clusters.
-----------
662. The stars in the diagonal band running from
the upper left to the lower right in the H-R Diagram are known as
A) supergiants.
B)
giants.
C) All
of the other answers are correct.
D)
white dwarfs.
E) main
sequence stars.
-----------
663. Comparing globular clusters and open
clusters, which of the
following
is true?
A) Globulars are found closer to the Milky Way in the sky.
B) Open
clusters are more massive (have more stars).
C)
Stars in globulars have strong spectral lines
of metals.
D)
There are more red stars in open clusters.
E) Open
clusters have hotter and bluer bright stars.
-----------
664. The most luminous stars on the main sequence
are the
A)
coolest.
B)
least dense of all stars
C)
longest lived.
D) most
massive.
E)
oldest.
-----------
665. If one region of the sky shows nearby stars
but no distant
stars
or galaxies, our view is probably
A)
being blocked by cold interstellar gas.
B)
directed toward a particularly empty region of space.
C)
being blocked by many cool stars.
D)
being blocked by an interstellar dust cloud.
E)
being blocked by an emission nebula.
-----------
666. By a star's position on an H-R diagram, we
can determine its
A)
color, distance, and chemical composition.
B)
distance, apparent brightness, and mass.
C)
luminosity, surface temperature, and size.
D) age,
chemical composition, and luminosity.
E) age,
luminosity, and distance.
-----------
667. Clouds rich in dust silhouetted against a
bright background
A)
reflection
B)
planetary
C) dark
D)
emission
E)
bright
-----------
668. The largest stars are found in which corner
of the H-R diagram?
A)
center
B)
upper left
C)
upper right
D)
lower right
E)
lower left
-----------
669. The gas in H II regions is radiating under
the influence of
A)
stars which have formed out of the nebulae.
B)
stars in the central region of the galaxy.
C)
cosmic rays.
D)
energy derived from magnetic fields.
-----------
670. Where would you look on an H-R diagram to
find a very small star with very high density?
A) near
the center of the main sequence
B) near
the upper end of the main sequence
C) near
the lower end of the main sequence
D)
above the main sequence
E)
below the main sequence
-----------
671. What is the principal difference between an
emission and a
reflection
nebula?
A) The
temperatures of the nearby stars differ.
B) The
reflection nebula contains more hydrogen.
C) The
luminosity of the nearby stars differ.
D) Only
the reflection nebula contains dust.
-----------
672. The Sun is a
A) supergiant star
B)
giant star
C) blue
star
D)
white dwarf star
E) main
sequence star
-----------
673. The properties which collectively
characterize Population I
(disk
population) stars are
A) low
metal abundances, old ages, elongated orbits.
B)
higher metal abundances, younger ages, circular orbits.
C)
found only in black holes, old ages.
D) low
metal abundances, young ages, no massive stars.
-----------
674. The spectral lines of a star are observed to
be shifted to longer wavelengths than those measured for a source at rest. Therefore,
A) the
star is approaching us.
B) the
star is moving away from us.
C) the
star is rather cool.
D) the
star is very hot.
-----------
675. The diameter of our Galaxy is closest to
A) 100
light years
B)
100,000 light years
C)
1,000,000 light years
D)
10,000 light years
E) 1000
light years
-----------
676. The basic cause of the different spectral
classes is
A) age
B)
pressure
C)
composition
D) luminosity
E) surface temperature
-----------
677. Galactic cannibalism is a
A)
significant factor only away from galaxy clusters.
B)
confirmed origin of dwarf elliptical galaxies.
C)
confirmed cause of supernova explosions.
D)
reason why S0 galaxies contain much gas and dust.
E)
possible origin of giant elliptical galaxies.
-----------
678. In an H-R diagram, a star's H is plotted
against its R.
A)
False
B)
Disregard this choice
C) True
D)
Disregard this choice
-----------
679. Elliptical galaxies comprise about _____
percent of all
A) 3
B) 25
C) 15
D) 50
E) 70
-----------
680. Most of the stars on the H-R diagram belong
to which group?
A) red
giant
B)
super giants
C) main
sequence
D)
white dwarf
-----------
681. The local group refers to
A) the
white dwarfs in the vicinity of the Sun.
B) all
stars within 100 light years of the Sun.
C) the
Andromeda galaxy and its two companion galaxies.
D) the
small cluster of galaxies, to which our own belongs.
-----------
682. In following the main sequence on the H-R
diagram in the direction of increasing temperature, one is also following
a
sequence of
A)
decreasing mass
B)
increasing mass
C)
increasing percentage of hydrogen
D)
increasing age
-----------
683. The Magellanic
Clouds are
A)
cirrus clouds seen only in the southern hemisphere.
B)
small irregular galaxies and companions of the Milky Way.
C) the
super-aggregate of which our own galaxy is a part.
D)
nearby elliptical galaxies.
-----------
684. The chemical composition of the Sun, by
weight, is about
A) 50
percent metals, 50 percent hydrogen.
B) 73
percent hydrogen, 25 percent helium, 2 percent others.
C) 75
percent helium, 20 percent hydrogen, 5 percent others.
D) 75
percent carbon, 25 percent helium.
E) 50
percent metals, 50 percent helium.
-----------
685. A galaxy consisting primarily of old stars
with very little
cool
gas and dust will be a(n)
A) spiral
B) elliptical
C) peculiar
D) quasar
E)
irregular
-----------
686. The very high pressure inside the Sun does
not blow the Sun apart because of the
A)
Sun's neutrino emission.
B)
inward force of gravity.
C)
nuclear reactions going on there.
D)
Sun's magnetic field.
E)
Sun's rotation.
-----------
687. A galaxy that has long "tails"
reaching out into space is
thought
to be the result of
A)
several supernovae going off near the nucleus.
B) the
effects of magnetic fields.
C) a
galaxy which lacks a halo.
D) the
collision of two galaxies.
E) a
strong galactic wind.
-----------
688. Why does the conversion of helium to carbon
require a higher temperature than the conversion of hydrogen to helium?
A)
Helium doesn't ionize as easily as hydrogen.
B) The
repulsion of like charges is stronger for helium.
C)
Carbon more easily forms a black body.
D)
Helium gas is more dense than hydrogen.
E)
Helium gas is less dense than hydrogen.
-----------
689. We would expect a galaxy with many bright
blue stars
A) to
contain no life.
B) to
have little or no dust and gas.
C) to
have much dust and gas.
D) to
have no old stars.
E) to
contain no stars like the Sun.
-----------
690. The order of the stages of evolution a star
like our Sun goes through is
A) red
giant, white dwarf, main sequence, proto-star.
B)
proto-star, white dwarf, main sequence, red giant.
C) red
giant, main sequence, proto-star, white dwarf.
D)
proto-star, red giant, main sequence, white dwarf.
E)
proto-star, main sequence, red giant, white dwarf.
-----------
691. According to the Hubble law, clusters of
galaxies twice as
A) away
from, 2 x
B) away
from, 4 x
C)
towards, 2 x
D)
towards, 4 2
-----------
692. The highest mass that a star has on the main
sequence is set by the point where the
A)
central temperature causes helium to form carbon.
B) age
of the star is older than the age of the universe.
C)
radiation is so strong it converts helium to hydrogen.
D)
central temperature barely can cause hydrogen to fuse.
E)
luminosity prevents more mass from collecting.
-----------
693. If the sky is photographed to locate other
galaxies on a
star
chart, the galaxies that are seen
A) are
clustered in the same part of the sky as globulars.
B)
occur more frequently near the Milky Way.
C) tend
to occur near H II regions in the Milky Way.
D)
uniformly across the entire sky.
E) tend
to be seen only rarely in the Milky Way.
-----------
694. The lower end of the main sequence is set by
the point where
A) hydrogen
stays in a liquid form.
B)
stars are too faint for us to see.
C) a
star's core just barely gets hot enough for hydrogen fusion.
D)
internal pressure would blow the star up.
E)
gravity could make the star contract.
-----------
695. The masses of spiral galaxies are calculated
from their
rotation
curves by application of
A)
Hubble's law.
B)
Kirchhoff's law.
C)
Newton's second law.
D) Kepler's third law.
E)
Newton's third law.
-----------
696. A star cluster whose H-R diagram has a main
sequence which has only very cool stars must be
A) very
old.
B) very
young.
C) very
far away.
D) in a
spiral arm.
-----------
697. The particle nature of light is demonstrated
by
A) refractuion.
B)
short wavelength of x-rays.
C) the photelectri effect.
D) the
interference effect.
-----------
698. A star cluster whose H-R diagram has a main
sequence which includes very hot stars must be
A) a
globular cluster.
B) very
young.
C) very
far away.
D) very
old.
-----------
699. The distances to stars more luminous and
hotter than the
Sun
are usually found from
A)
parallax
B) the
C)
brightness
D)
angular size
-----------
700. A neutron star is typically the size of
A) the
Earth's orbit.
B)
Mercury's orbit.
C) the Sun.
D) the
Earth.
E) a
large city.
-----------
701. The mass-luminosity law for main sequence
stars is based on
A)
about ten
B)
several thousand
C)
about one hundred
-----------
702. A white dwarf is typically the size of
A) the
Sun.
B) Mercury's
orbit.
C) a
large city.
D) the
Earth's orbit.
E) the
Earth.
-----------
703. Which of the following has essentially no
atmosphere?
A)
Earth
B)
Mercury
C)
Jupiter
D) Mars
E)
Venus
-----------
704. An object whose gravitational field is so
strong that light cannot escape is called a
A) dark
nebulae
B)
neutron star
C)
black hole
D) black dwarf
E) pulsar
-----------
705. The outer Galilean moons of Jupiter are
thought to consist
primarily
of
A)
hydrogen, methane, and ammonia.
B)
carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
C)
metals and rock.
D) ice,
water, and rock.
-----------
706. The central stars of planetary nebulae
A) are
cool stars.
B)
ejected the matter found in the nebulae
C) have
condensed out of the material of the nebulae.
D)
captured the matter of the nebulae.
-----------
707. Since distant galaxies all seem to be moving
away from us,
we
are very close to the point of origin of the explosion
A)
True.
B)
False.
-----------
708. The temperature in the center of the Sun is
about \_\_\_\_\_ degrees K which is hot enough for \_\_\_\_\_ to occur.
A) 15
million, hydrogen fusion
B) 15,
unclear fishing
C) 15
hundred, nuclear fission
D) 15
thousand, hydrogen fusion
E) 15
billion, helium fusion
-----------
709. For which theory might we expect to see
differences between
the
nearest and the most remote galaxies?
A)
Steady State
B) Big
Bang
-----------
710. Regions rich in \_\_\_\_\_ are the
birthplaces of stars.
A) dust
and gas
B)
planetary nebulae
C)
globular clusters
D)
heavy elements
E) red
giants
-----------
711. The cosmological principle states that all
observers,
everywhere
in space, would
A)
believe themselves to be at the center of space.
B) see
total confusion.
C) view
the same large scale picture of the universe.
D) be
members of civilizations of the same maturity.
-----------
712. A newly-formed star with the Sun's mass
slowly contracts toward the main sequence, radiating at the expense of \_\_\_\_
until the onset of \_\_\_\_\_ stops the contraction and supports the star for
its main sequence lifetime.
A)
electromagnetic energy, hydrogen fusion
B)
gravitational potential energy, hydrogen fusion
C)
gravitational potential energy, helium fusion
D) hydrogen fusion, helium fusion
-----------
713. If the quasars are indeed the very most
distant objects in
A)
True.
B)
False.
-----------
714. Those main-sequence stars which go through
their evolution
most
rapidly are the
A)
stars like the Sun.
B) red
stars of low mass.
C) All
main sequence stars evolve at the same rate.
D) very
massive stars.
-----------
715. One method of keeping the universe in a
Steady State is to
postulate
A) the
steady expansion of the universe.
B) the
spontaneous creation of matter.
C) the
production of supernovae.
D) the
rotation of galaxies.
-----------
716. The energy emitted by a white dwarf comes
from
A)
contraction, releasing potential energy.
B) core
helium burning.
C) the
heat stored in the star.
D) hydrogen
burning.
-----------
717. Quasars
A)
should be more common in the future than in the past.
B) were
more common when the universe was younger.
C)
probably have less than a thousand solar masses.
D) have
the same luminosity as giant elliptical galaxies.
E) have
absorption lines but rarely have emission lines.
-----------
718. Sunspots are
A)
hotter regions on the surface of the sun.
B)
places where magnetic field lines leave or enter the Sun's surface.
C)
related to the Sun's electric field.
D)
cyclonic storms similar to Jupiter's great red spot.
E) a
hot, rarified gas surrounding the Sun.
-----------
719. In the outline of the Big Bang cosmology, all
of the matter
and
radiation in the universe was occupying a tiny volume
A) one
hundred billion
B) one
billion
C) one
hundred million
D)
fifteen billion
-----------
720. The chromosphere of
the Sun lies
A)
above the photosphere.
B) next
to the core.
C)
outside of the corona.
D) in
the region where the Sun's gas is hottest.
E)
below the photosphere.
-----------
721. The primeval atom contained how much mass?
A) all
the mass in the universe
B) 1
billion solar masses
C) 6
protons and 6 neutrons
D) 1
million solar masses
E) 4
solar masses
-----------
722. A solar flare is
A) a
burst of energy that shows up as a sudden brightening of the Sun.
B) a
sudden increase in the rate of nuclear reactions at the Sun's center.
C) the
place where the majority of absorption lines form.
D) a
dark region on the photosphere.
E) the
bright visible surface of the Sun.
-----------
723. Which elements were present when the universe
was 500
seconds
old?
A)
hydrogen
B)
hydrogen and helium
C) all
the elements now present
D) only
elements heavier than iron
-----------
724. Which of the following statements is false?
A) The
sun is one of the hottest known stars.
B)
White dwarf stars are much denser than main sequence stars.
C) The
greater a star's mass, the faster it converts its fuel to energy.
D) On
the main sequence, more massive stars are brighter.
-----------
725. Which one of these is a name for the source
of 3 radio and
microwave
emission coming from the entire sky?
A)
primeval fireball
B)
giant elliptical
C)
galaxy
D)
quasar
-----------
726. What has to happen inside a star before it is
possible to initiate each new nuclear reaction in the chain leading to heavier
and heavier atoms?
A) The
star must become a white dwarf.
B) The
star's outer layers must expand.
C) The
star must lose some of its mass.
D) The
gas temperature has to increase.
E) The
gas pressure has to increase.
-----------